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Parliament — UPSC Prelims Polity previous year questions — page 9

371 solved previous year questions on Parliament, papers from 1990 to 2023, drawn from UPSC CDS, State PCS, UPSC CAPF. Each carries the printed answer key and the explanation from the source compilation.

1. #321Practice set
   Consider the following statements: 1. If a legislative council rejects an ordinary bill passed by the state legislative assembly, then a joint sitting can be called by the Governor. 2. The Constitution has provisions to fix the actual strength of the Legislative Council of the states.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   • A1 only
   • B2 only
   • CBoth 1 and 2
   • DNeither 1 nor 2
   Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
   Explanation

   Option ( d) is the correct l is incorrect. The Constitution does for the mechanism of joint sitting of both the State legislature to resolve the disagreement two Houses over a 2 is incorrect. The maximum strength of is fixed at one-third of the total strength of and the minimum strength is fixed at that the size of the councii depends on the size assembly of the concerned state. This is done to predominance of the directly elected House the legislative affairs of the state. Though the fixed the maximum and the minimum limits, the of a Council is fixed by Parliament

2. #322Practice set
   In which of the following, state legislative council has equal powers to that of the state legislative assembly? 1. Participation in the election of the president. 2. Ratification of a constitutional amendment bill. 3. Enlargement of jurisdiction of the state public service commission. 4. Approval of ordinances issued by the governor.Select the correct answer using the code given below
   • A2 and 3 only
   • B3 and 4 only
   • C1 and 4 only
   • D2, 3 and 4 only
   Answer: (B) 3 and 4 only
   Explanation

   Option b is the correct 1 is incorrect. State legislative council does in the election of the president. Only the of both the Houses of Parliament, the of the legislative assemblies of the states and members of the legislative assemblies of the of Delhi and Puducherry participate in of the 2 is incorrect. The council has no effective the ratification of a constitutional amendment bill. In also, the will of the assembly prevails over that of 3 and 4 are correct. The council has like that of the assembly with respect to jnrisdiction of the state public service of ordinances issued by the governor

3. #323Practice set
   The President has a role in relation to bills passed by state legislatures. With respect to this, consider the following statements: 1. The president can withhold his assent to a money bill reserved by governor for an indefinite period of time. 2. The bill returned by president has to be reconsidered by state legislature within 3 months. 3. The President is not obliged to give assent to a bill presented again after reconsideration of state legislature.How many statements given above are correct?
   • AOnly One
   • BOnly Two
   • CAll Three
   • DNone
   Answer: (B) Only Two
   Explanation

   Option b is the correct l is correct. When a money bill is reserved for consideration of president, the president give his assent to the bill or withhold his assent return the bill for reconsideration of state is no mention in constitution for how long withhold the bill. Hence, President can assent for indefinite period as he/she 2 is incorrect. When a bill is reserved by for the consideration of the President, the either give his assent to the bill or withhold his the bill or return the bill for reconsideration of the House or Houses of the state legislature. When a bill is so House or Houses have to reconsider it within a six 3 is correct. If the bill is presented again to assent after it is passed by the House or Houses with amendments. It is not obligatory for the president to assent to such bill. This means state legislature cannot veto power of the president. The constitution doesn

4. #324Practice set
   Consider the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha and state Legislative council: 1. Both Rajya Sabha and Legislative council reflect the federal element of the polity. 2. Both Rajya Sabha and Legislative council consists of nominated members in the house. 3. The Legislative council generally has less powers compared to the Legislative Assembly.How many statements given above are correct?
   • AOnly One
   • BOnly Two
   • CAll Three
   • DNone
   Answer: (B) Only Two
   Explanation

   Option b is the correct l is incorrect. Only Rajya Sabha and not reflect the federal element of the polity. The consists of the representatives of the states and the federal element of the polity. It maintains equilibrium by protecting the interests of the the undue interference of the Centre. Therefore, to be an effective revising body and not just an or dilatory body like that of the council. On the the issue of federal significance does not arise in of a state 2 is correct. Both Rajya Sabha and state of nominated members in the house. The heterogeneously constituted. It represents and consists of differently elected members include some nominated members. However, it's makes its position weak and reduces its an effective revising body. On the other hand, the is homogeneously constituted. It represents only and consists of mainly elected members including 3 is correct. The position of

5. #325Practice set
   With reference to the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly, consider the following statements: 1. He/she is the Chairman of the Rules Committee of the Legislative Assembly 2. He/she can be removed only on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacityWhich of the statements given above is/ are correct?
   • A1 only
   • B2 only
   • CBoth 1 and 2
   • DNeither 1 nor 2 AND 20 L
   Answer: (A) 1 only
   Explanation

   Option a is the correct Speaker is the main Presiding Officer of the Assembly. The Constitution has well regarding his election, removal and his duties VI of the 1 is correct: The Speaker is by default of 3 Committees of the Legislative of which is the Rules Committee. The other two are Advisory Committee and the General Statement 2 is incorrect: A sitting Judge of the or High Court (not the Speaker) is removed grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. may be removed for any reason mentioned in by the members of the Legislative by a majority of the then members of the can also be removed if he stops being a member of (gets disqualified) according to the People Act, l

6. #326Practice set
   With reference to the State Legislatures in India, consider the following statements: 1. There are no provisions for Joint Sittings of the house for the passage of the bill. 2. No Bills can originate in the Legislative Council. 3. The Legislative Council can only delay a Bill and not prevent its passage.How many statements given above are correct?
   • AOnly One
   • BOnly Two
   • CAll Three
   • DNone
   Answer: (B) Only Two
   Explanation

   Option b is the correct 196 in Part VI of the Constitution as well as the Procedure the House deal with the legislative a State Legislature. These provisions decide how a Bill is introduced and passed in the State 1 is correct: Unlike the Parliament, does not make any provisions allowing to convene a Joint Sitting of both the Houses of Legislature (Assembly and Council). This is procedure for passage of a Bill in State Legislature is there is no occasion of a deadlock occurring, is no need of a Joint 2 is incorrect: Just like in the Parliament, Bill can originate in either House of the So this statement is incorrect as an can originate in the Legislative 3 is correct: The Upper House of the (the Legislative Council) has lesser the Lower House of the State Legislature with respect to the passage of an Ordinary sent by the Assembly to the Council, the only suggest amendments. The Assembly

7. #327Practice set
   Which of the following are the options available to the State Legislative Council once the State Legislative Assembly passes a Bill and transmits it? 1. Return the Bill for reconsideration after suggesting amendments. 2. Not take any action for 6 months. 3. Reject the bill altogether 4. Keep returning the Bill creating a deadlockSelect the correct option using the code given below
   • A1, 3 and 4 only
   • B1 and 3 only
   • C2 and 3 only
   • D1, 2 and 4 only
   Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
   Explanation

   Option b is the correct 196 and 197 of the constitution have the legislative procedures for introduction of an Ordinary Bill in the State Legislature as the roles of the two Houses in this process. This restrictions on the Legislative Council with regards l is correct: The constitution has made a a Legislative Council at state level, so that all well deliberated and not passed in an undue haste. So Council has been given the right as well as of considering a Bill and suggesting amendments the Bill for reconsideration to the Lhe Assembly accepls the amendments, the Bill to have been passed. Or the Assembly may amendments and resend the Bill to the Council, again propose amendments. If these 2nd round too are not acceptable to the Assembly, Bill is deemed to have been passed in the form that passed 2 is incorrect: This statement is incorrect as Council has the option to not take any the Bi

8. #328Practice set
   With reference to the comparative procedures of pasr of Money Bills in the Parliament and the State Legislature, consider the following statements: 1. It can be introduced in the Parliament on the recommendation of the President, for the State Legislature it is the Governor. 2. It can be introduced only in the Lower House in both Parliament and State Legislature. 3. Rajya Sabha can amend it, the Legislative Council can't.How many statements given.oove are correct?
   • AOnly One
   • BOnly Two
   • CAll Three
   • DNone
   Answer: (B) Only Two
   Explanation

   Option b is the correct 109 as well as Article 198 of the Constitution provisions with respect to the legislative the introduction and passage of a Money Bill Parliament and the State Legislature l is correct: Money Bill in both the the State Legislature require prior recommendation introduction. In case of the Parliament, it is the of the President, while in case of the it is the Governor's prior is the only point of difference in the for passage of money bills in the Parliament vs State Legislatures. All the other provisions are the 2 is correct: A money bill can only be the Lower House of both, the Parliament (i.e. Lok the State Legislature (i.e. Legislative 3 is incorrect: The Upper House of neither (i.e Rajya Sabha) nor the State Legislative Council) can neither amend nor money bill. They can only give recommendations respective Lower House may or may not it is the form which the Lo

9. #329Practice set
   Which among the following was the key feature of the Fifty-Second Amendment Act, 1985 to the Indian Constitution?
   • AIt empowered the Parliament to restrict the Fundamental Rights of persons employed in intelligence organisations
   • BIt reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha and State legislative assembly elections
   • Cthe Constitution that deals with disqualification of legislatures on grounds of defection
   • DIt accorded a special status to the Indian capital by designing it as the National Capital Territory of Delhi
   Answer: (C) the Constitution that deals with disqualification of legislatures on grounds of defection
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct Amendment Act of 1985 provided for of the members of Parliament and the on the ground of defection from one to another. For this purpose, it made changes in of the Constitution and added a new Tenth Schedule) to the Constitution. This act is to as the 'anti-defection law' Option a is incorrect: Fiftieth Amendment Act, the Parliament to restrict the of persons employed in intelligence organisations systems set up for the armed forces b is incorrect: Sixty-First Amendment Act, the voting age from 11 years to 18 years for the and state legislative assembly d is incorrect: Sixty-Ninth Amendment a special status to the Union Territory of designing it as the National Capital Territory of Delhi

10. #330Practice set
    Which of the following are among the participants to elect the members to the 'Legislative Council' of a State? 1. Members of local bodies in the State. 2. Graduates of three years standing within the State. of T.egislative Assembly of the State. 4. Members of Lok Sabha elected from the State. 5. Members of Rajya Sabha nominated from the State.Select the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1, 2 and 3 only
    • B2, 4 and 5 only
    • C1, 2, 4 and 5 only
    • D4 and 5 only
    Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct of the total number of members of a legislative council

11. #331Practice set
    With reference to the position of Legislative Council of a State and the Rajya Sabha under the Indian Constitution, consider the following Statements: 1. Like the Rajya the Legislative Councils cannot reject or amend a Money Bill. 2. Unlike the Rajya Sabha, the Legislative Council does not participate in the election of the President of India. 3. The Legislative Council does not have any exclusive or special powers as enjoyed by the Rajya Sabha.How many of the above given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (C) All three
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct though both the council and the Rajya Sabha chambers, the Constitution has given the lesser importance than the Rajya I is correct: Rajya Sabha, cannot amend a money bill. It should return the bill to the 14 days, either with recommendations or Similarly, the Legislative Councils reject or amend a Money 2 is correct: The State Legislative Council participate in the election of the President of India of the state in the Rajya Sabha. But, Raj ya Sabha participate in the elections of the 3 is correct: The Rajya Sabha has been or special powers like authorizing the create new All-India Services common to both the states which are not enjoyed by the Legislative a State Important Tips The Rajya Sabha has been given four exclusive or special powers namely

12. #332Practice set
    With.reference to the Speaker of State Legislative Assembly, consider the following statements: 1. He/ she decides whether the bill is a money bill or not. 2. The Governor can prorogue the session of the house only with the approval of the Speaker. 3. He/she is the final authority to decide on matters related to defection and his/ her decision cannot be reviewed by the Judiciary.How many of the above given statements is/ are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct 1 is correct: Speaker of the legislative whether the bill is a money bill or not. If the bill as money bill then the Legislative case of bicameral legislature in a state) shall have over money bills except the council can delay of money bills for a period of 14 days and days the money bill will be deemed to be passed by 2 is incorrect: Usually the Governor house after the Speaker declares adjourned sine the Governor can also prorogate the house it is in session which means the Speaker's termination of sitting is not necessary for sitting by the Governor. Thus, the Speaker approval mandatory for Prorogation of session by the 3 is incorrect: While it is true that the Speaker final deciding authority on matters related to defection, decision is not exempted from judicial review

13. #333Practice set
    In context of the Individual Privileges 218. With respect to the composition of the State vested in the members of State legislatures Legislative Assembly (SLA), consider the by the Constitution, consider the following following statements:statements: 1. The constitution of India fixes both the 1. No members of the State legislature can be maximum as well as the minimum strength arrested during the session of legislature, of the State Legislative Assemblies. even on account of criminal charges. 2. Governor of the state can nominate two 2. Unlike freedom of Speech granted by members who have legal expertise, to the Article 19 of the constitution, freedom of state legislative assembly. speech granted to them is absolute. 3. The total number of assembly seats in 3. Members of legislatures can refuse to each state is decided by the Parliament. appear as witnesses in a case pending 4. The 97th Constitutional Amendment in court when the state legislature is in Act provided for the delimitation of session. constituencies based on the 2011 census.How many of the above given statements is/ How many of the above given statements is/ are correct? are correct?
    • AOnly one (a) Only one
    • BOnly two (b) Only two
    • CAll three (c) Only three
    • DNone (d) All four G
    Answer: (A) Only one (a) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct of the state legislature are granted privileges for the parliament to work l is incorrect: No member of state be arrested during the session of the state 40 days before the beginning and 40 days after of such a session. However, this privilege is in civil cases and not in criminal cases or 2 is incorrect: Freedom of Speech members of the State legislature are not absolute freedom is subject to restrictions. Freedom of to members is subject to the provisions of and to the rules and standing orders procedure of the state 3 is correct: It is true that members of the can refuse to appear as a witness in a in a court when the state legislature is in of state legislatures are given such privileges out their constitutional duty without any interference. Important Tips Article 194 of the Indian Constitution have mention about privileges of state legislature Privileges of

14. #334Practice set
    With reference to the special provrnwns for legislations regarding special areas in India, consider the following statements: 1. An order by the President can repeal or amend any Parliamentary law with respect to Union territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. 2. The Legislatures of states having Tribal Areas can restrict application of Parliamentary laws in those areas. 3. The Governors of states having Scheduled Areas can direct the modification of Parliamentary laws in those areas.How many of the above given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct l is correct: The President can make the peace, progress and good government of Tenilories of- the Andaman and Nicobar Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Ladakh. A regulation so made has the same force as an act of Parliament. It may also repeal or act of Parliament in relation to these union 2 is incorrect: Article 244 of the declares some special areas known as Tribal in states of Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya which are inhabited by tribes who have with the modern society and need with respect to their environment, land In order to ensure this, according to the Governor of these states (not the State declare that certain acts of the Parliament, even if under the Union List are not applicable or apply or modifications to these areas. Hence is 3 is correct: Constitution provides that of the states enumerated in Schedule V according to their discretion that certain a

15. #335Practice set
    Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the powers of Election Commission of India?
    • ADetermining the territorial areas of the electoral constituencies
    • BGranting recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to them
    • CPreparing code of conduct to be observed by the parties and the candidates at the time of elections
    • DAdvising the governor on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of state legislature on the grounds of anti defection
    Answer: (D) Advising the governor on matters relating to the disqualifications of the members of state legislature on the grounds of anti defection
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct a, b and c is powers of Election Commission of India: To determine the territorial areas of the electoral constituencies throughout the country on the basis of the Delimitation Commission report in Parliament. To grant recognition to political parties and allot election symbols to them. To prepare the code of conduct to be observed by the parties and the candidates at the time of elections. (Model Code of d is incorrect. The Speaker takes the decision relating to the disqualifications of the members legislature on the grounds of anti-defection

16. #336Practice set
    With reference to Joint Public service commission, which of the following statements is/are correct? L The Joint Public service commission can be established for two or more states by President. 2. It can be established only if two or more states pass a resolution in this regard. 3. The chairman and members of Joint public service commission are to be appointed by the President.Select the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B1 and 3 only
    • C2 and 3 only
    • D3 only
    Answer: (D) 3 only
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct a is correct. The Rajya Sabha can either amend the financial bills (I) and (II) under Article b is correct. A joint sitting can be convened the deadlock with regard to financial bills (I) under Article c is correct. In case of Financial Bill (I) and Article 117, President has all the veto powers i.e. either give his assent or withhold his assent or bill back for the reconsideration of the d is incorrect. All money bills are financial all financial bills are not money bills. Money bills a part of larger group of financial bills (Article 117)

17. #337Practice set
    Consider the following statements to the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) 1. The conditions of service and tenure of office of its chairperson and members is determined by the Parliament. 2. It has to investigate all matters relating to the constitutional safeguards for the Anglo-Indian Community. Which statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (A) 1 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct correct chronological order is: 1: Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was the Government of India in 1957 to investigate of the Community Development and the National Extension Service (1953) and measures for their better 3: Ashok Mehta committee was established 4: Rao Committee was appointed by commission in 2: The L M Singhavi Committee was formed under Rajiv Gandhi's administration to investigate that Panchayati Raj institutions facing

18. #338Practice set
    Which of the following is not the benefit provided to recognised political parties in India?
    • AThey need only one proposer for filling the nomination
    • BThe expense on star campaigners is not included in the election expenditure of their candidates
    • CBroadcasl fadlilies on during general elections
    • DRecognised political parties are allowed to have same number of star campaigners as the non-recognised political party
    Answer: (B) The expense on star campaigners is not included in the election expenditure of their candidates
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct l is correct: The Vice President is the of the Rajya Sabha, and primarily almost duties lie in that House of the Parliament. Hence, Article of the Indian constitution, the removing the Vice-President from his office can in the Rajya Sabha 2 is incorrect: Motion for the removal of have to be passed by the Rajya Sabha with majority and in Lok Sabha it has to be passed simple 3 is correct: According to Article for the removal of the Vice President can without a compulsory advance notice period of 4 is incorrect: The constitution has provided for the removal of the Vice President

19. #339Practice set
    With reference to the roles and responsibilities of the Election Commission of India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It conducts elections for Lok Sabha, State Legislative assemblies and municipalities. 2. It is empowered to de-register parties on the grounds of violating the Constitution. 3. By polls for a vacant seat cannot be held when remainder of the term in relation to the vacancy is less than one year.Select the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 only
    • B1 and 2 only
    • C3 only
    • D1 and 3 only
    Answer: (C) 3 only
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct l is incorrect. Election Commission of elections only for Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha Sabha and not for Gram Sabha and commission is responsible for 2 is incorrect. The ECI is not de-register parties on the grounds of violating or breaching the undertaking given to it time of registration. A party can only be de-registered registration was obtained by fraud; if it is declared the Central Government; or if a party amends its and notifies the ECI that it can no longer the Indian 3 is correct. Under the Representation act, by polls for a vacant seat cannot be held of the term in relation to the vacancy is less year

20. #340Practice set
    Consider the following statements: 1. Every National party is allotted a symbol exclusively for their use throughout the country. 2. A party recognized as a state party in just two states is eligible to get the recognition of a National Party.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (A) 1 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct l is correct. Every national party is symbol exclusively reserved for its use throughout similarly, every state party is allotted a reserved for its use in the state or the states it is parties have to select a t list of free 2 is incorrect. For a party to be a National Party, it has to fulfill any of the If it secures six per cent of votes polled in any four or more states at a general election; and, in it wins four seats in the Lok Sabha from any state or states; or If it wins two per cent of seats in the Lok Sabha at a general election; and these candidates are elected from three states; or If it is recognised as a state party in four states

21. #341Practice set
    The Representation of People's Act, 1951 deals with which of the following matters? 1. Qualifications and disqualifications for membership of Parliament and State legislatures 2. Allocation of seats in the House of People and State Legislative Assemblies 3. Corrupt practices and Electoral offences 4. Delimitation of Parliamentary, Assembly and Council ConstituenciesSelect the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B2 and 4 only
    • C1 and 3 only
    • D2 and 3 only
    Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
    Explanation

    0 plion c is the correct Representation of People's Act, 1951 relating to: Qualificalions and disqualifications for membership of Parliament and State Legislatures. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Corrupt practices and electoral offences. Hence, statement 3 is Representation of People's Act, 1950 relating to: Allocation of seals in the House of the People, the State Legislative Assemblies and the State Legislative Councils. Hence, statement 2 is of Parliamentary, Assembly and Hence, statement 4 is incorrect

22. #342Practice set
    Consider the following statements regarding NOTA option in elections: 1. It is introduced for elections to Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State legislative assembly and Legislative councils. 2. The votes polled against NOTA option are taken into account for calculating the total valid votes. 3. It is a kind of negative voting and it also provides for the Right to Reject.How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
    • AOnly One
    • BOnly Two
    • CAll Three
    • DNone
    Answer: (C) All Three
    Explanation

    Option c is the c.orrect or "None of the Above", is the option which voter to officially register a vote of rejection for who are l is incorrect. NOTA (None of the Above) by Election commission in 2013 for the and state legislative assembly elections and not for Sabha and state Legislative councils' 2 is incorrect. The votes polled against are not taken into account for calculating the votes. It is counted as invalid 3 is incorrect. NOTA is a negative for voters to voice out their dissatisfaction. It acts kind of negative voting. But it does not provide for Reject a candidate i.e. the election does not get nullified number of votes polled against the NOTA option is the number of votes polled by any one of the candidates

23. #343Practice set
    Consider the following statements regarding Model code of conduct (MCC) in India: 1. The origins of the MCC lie in the Assembly elections of Kerala in 1960. 2. MCC is legally binding on all political parties contesting elections. 3. MCC is operational only between the date on which the voting to the election is conducted and the date on which the results are declared.How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
    • AOnly One
    • BOnly Two
    • CAll Three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only Two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct MCC is a set of guidelines issued by the to regulate political parties and candidates to elections. It helps EC in keeping with the has been given under Article 324 of the gives it the power to supervise and conduct free elections to the Parliament and State 1 is correct. The origins of the MCC lie in elections of Kerala in 1960, when the prepared a 'Code of Conduct' for in the Lok Sabha elections in 1962, the the code to all recognised political parties governments and it was wholeheartedly followed. Commission first effectively put to use the of Conduct in the year 1991 to ensure fair a level playing field. It was in 1991 after of the election norms and continued corruption, decided to enforce the MCC more the MCC is not legally binding on political ECI has the authority to punish candidates for For example, some politicians and Ministers from political rallies

24. #344Practice set
    With reference to various officers responsible for conduct of elections in India, consider the following pairs: 1. Presiding Oversee the conduct of Officer elections in the entire constituency during assembly elections 2. Returning Oversee the conduct of Officer the election at a single polling booth only 3. Electoral Preparation of the Registration electoral roll OfficerHow many pairs given above are correctly SL matched?
    • AOnly One
    • BOnly Two
    • CAll Three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only One
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct Article 324 of the Constitution of India, Commission of India is vested with the power direction and control of conducting to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative elections are conducted by an election machinery a number of officers. Some of them 1 is incorrect. The Presiding Officer for overseeing the conducts of the poll at station. He is assisted by the polling officers. appointed by the District Election Officer (DEO). In of Union Territories (UTs), such appointments are the Returning 2 is incorrect. The Returning Officer responsible for the conduct of elections in or assembly constituency concerned. Commission of India nominates or officer of the Government or a local authority as Officer for each of the assembly and in consultation with the State Government Territory Administration. In addition, the of India also appoints one or more Officers (ARO) for each o

25. #345Practice set
    Which of the following are the different types of observers in Parliamentary and Assembly Elections in India? 1. Expenditure Observers 2. Micro Observers 3. Awareness Observers 4. Feedback ObserversSelect the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1, 2 and 3 only
    • B2 and 4 only
    • C1, 3 and 4 only
    • D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct l is correct. Expenditure Observers from Services are appointed to keep a dose watch expenditure of the candidates and to ensure inducement is offered to the electors during the process for exercise of their 2 is correct. To observe the poll proceedings on day in selected critical polling stations micro post poll observers are appointed. They observe the Polling Stations on poll day from the the completion and process sealing of EVMS and to ensure that all instructions of the complied with the Polling Parties the Polling 3 is correct. To oversee the efficient and of the electoral process at the field level, respect of voter awareness and facilitation, are appointed. They observe the by the election machinery to bridge the gap participation in the electoral process regard to voters' turnout. They also monitor the related aspects of RP Act 1951 and observe directed

26. #346Practice set
    Which of the following is/are the conditions for recognition of a party as a National Party? 1. If the party secures 4 of the valid votes in 3 states at a general election for the Lok Sabha. 2. If the party wins of seats in legislative assembly at general election of the state legislative assembly. 3. If the party wins of seats in Lok Sabha at general elections from three states.Select the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 only
    • B3 only
    • C1 and 3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3
    Answer: (A) 1 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct 1 is incorrect. The GST Council is a that aims to bring together states and the Centre on platform for the nationwide rollout of the reform. It consists of the following Finance Minister of State for Minister in charge of finance or taxation or any nominated by each State government, as Ministers of all states are not members of the 2 is correct. The Council is a joint forum of and the States. It is required to make the Centre and the States on the following matters: (a) The taxes, cesses and surcharges levied by the Centre, the States and the local bodies that would get merged in The goods and services that may be subjected to GST or exempted from The threshold limit of turnover below which goods and services may be exempted from 3 is incorrect. As per the Constitution, in case voting, every decision of the GST Council has to be a majority of not less than three-

27. #347Practice set
    Consider the following statements with reference to the By-Elections in India: 1. By-election to the house of Parliament or a state legislature must be held within three months of occurrence of the vacancy. 2. By-elections may not be held if the remainder of the term of the member whose vacancy is to be filled is less than one year.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (B) 2 only
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct l is incorrect: In India by-elections to the Parliament or a state legislature must be held within (not three months) of occurrence of the is held with a definit purpose, which is to fill office that has become 2 is correct: By-elections are not where the remainder of the term of the vacancy is to be filled is less than one year. the Election Commission in consultation with Government, certifies that it is difficult to hold within the said period then By-elections can Important Tips In India, by elections is held in one or a few constituencies due to the death or resignation of candidates. However, it can also be held if an elected member resigns or gets disqualified under parliamentary hnv. A rnember of a legislative assembly often leaves hi.s position vacant on various grounds, especially when he/she inept. It could be the person's untimely death or a criminal c

28. #348Practice set
    Consider the following statements with reference to the Delimitation Commission: 1. Its orders cannot be challenged in any court of law. 2. The Commission determines its own procedure and has all the powers of a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. 3. They must be constituted in India before every General election.How many of the above-given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct Commission or a Boundary Commission is 1 is correct: The Delimitation Commission is body whose orders have the force of law be called in question before any court. These into force on a date to be specified by the India in this behalf and no modifications are by concerned 2 is correct: The Commission determines procedure and in the performance of its functions all the powers of a civil court under the Code of 1 is incorrect: According to Article 82 of the Parliament enacts a Delimitation each census (not before every General Article 170 states that after each census, states are territorial constituencies based on the Delimitation Act. H Important Tips Delimitation is the process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country or a province having a legislative body In India, Delimitation Commissions have been constituted 4 times - in 1952

29. #349Practice set
    With reference to Anti defection law, consider the following statements: 1. Deputy chairman of Rajya Sabha is not disqualified under anti-defection law when s/he voluntary gives up the membership of his/her party. 2. A 'defection' by at least one-third of the elected members of a political party is considered a 'merger'. 3. Abstaining from voting by a member of the House, against the directives of his party, can be considered as defection.How many of the above-given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct Anti-Defection Law was passed in 1985 through amendment, adding Tenth Schedule to the The main intent of the law was to l is correct: A member of a house for the office of presiding officer is not subjected under anti defection law if he/she up the membership of his/her party or rejoins it to hold the said office. Speaker or the Deputy Speaker QVER,NANCE of the House of People, Deputy Chairman of the States can voluntarily give up their party attracting the disqualification under 2 is incorrect: As per the 52nd Amendment Act, a 'defection' by one-third of the elected a political party was considered a the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003, and presently at least two-thirds of the members party have to be in favour of a "merger" for it to 3 is correct: A legislator is deemed to if he either voluntarily gives up the membership party or disobeys the directives

30. #350Practice set
    With reference to the Right to be forgotten, consider the following statements: 1. It is the right to have publicly available personal information removed from any public platforms. 2. In India there is a law that specifically provides for the right to be forgotten.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (A) 1 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct l is correct: The 'right to be forgotten' is the have publicly available personal information the internet, search, databases, websites or any platforms, once the personal information in no longer necessary, or 2 is incorrect: In India, there is no law provides for the right to be forgotten. Personal Data Protection Bill 2019 recognized this Bill talks that under the Right to be forgotten, de-link, limit, delete or correct the disclosure of information held by data fiduciaries

31. #351Practice set
    In which of the following cases is it mandatory for the central/state government to pay compensation for the acquisition of land? 1. for religious purposes 2. Properties of minority education institution 3. Land held under statutory ceiling limit for personal cultivationSelect the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B2 and 3 only
    • C3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3
    Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct 2 and 3 are correct. The 44 th Amendment has also abolished the constitutional the Parliament as well as the state legislatures to in case of compulsory acquisition of by the governments. However, there are to it: When the government acquires the property of a minority educational institution. When the government acquires the land held by a person under his personal cultivation and the land is within the statutory ceiling l is incorrect. Land for religious purpose covered under it. Therefore, it is not mandatory for to pay compensation in this regard

32. #352Practice set
    Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the rights of the citizens under the Constitution of India?
    • ARights are obligation upon the state
    • BRights indicate activities that states must refrain from doing
    • CFulfillment of rights is dependent on fulfillment of duties
    • DRights are entitled claims of citizens on the state
    Answer: (A) Rights are obligation upon the state
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct l is incorrect: The Fomth Schedule to provides for allocation of seats to the States RNANCE Union Territories in Rajya Sabha. The allocation of seats on the basis of the population (not on the basis of each 2 is incorrect: The Fourth Schedule of deals with the allocation of seats in the to the states and union territories. The each union territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly members of an electoral college specially constituted purpose. This election is also held in accordance system of proportional representation by means of transferable vote. Out of the nine union three (Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu Kashmir) in Rajya 3 is correct: The Rajya Sabha is a that is, it is a permanent body and not subject However, one-third of its members retire year. The Constitution has not fixed the term of members of the Rajya Sabha and left it to the the Parliament in the Rep

33. #353Practice set
    For elections to the Lok Sabha and State Assemblies, the Independent India adopted the FPTP (First Past the Post) system of elections rather than Proportional representation. Which of the following reasons can be attributed to this? 1. India's poor literacy rate at the time of independence 2. The Royal Commission Report of 1910 favoured the FPTP 3. FPTP generally provides for more stable governments 4. To reduce religious polarization of vote 5. Safeguarding interests of minoritiesSelect the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1, 3 and 4 only
    • B1, 4 and 5 only
    • C1, 2 and 3 only
    • D2, 3, 4 and 5 only
    Answer: (A) 1, 3 and 4 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct reasons are responsible for adopting the Past the Post system) of elections rather representation by India - India's poor literacy rate at the time of independence (literacy rate was in 1951). Hence, statement l is correct. To protect the government stability. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. To reduce religious polarisation of vote. Hence, Statement 4 is British Parliament's Royal Commission Report which examined proportional representation majority systems and preferred the but the British parliament refused to recommendations because it may threaten the stability Hence, statement 2 is of the main criticisms of the FPTP system is that it give due representation to minorities. Hence, is incorrect

34. #354Practice set
    With reference to AU India Services, consider the following statements: 1. The members of All-India services are both recruited and trained by the Central government. 2. Both salaries and pensions of members of All-India services are borne by the states PracticebWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct Sabha has following exclusive or special powers that enjoyed by the Lok Sabha. These l is correct It can authorise the Parliament new All-India Services common to both the Centre The Parliament can create it if the Rajya Sabha resolution declaring that it is necessary or expedient in interest to do so. Such a resolution in the Rajya be supported by two-thirds of the members present This power of recommendation is given to the to protect the interests of states in the Indian (Article 2 is correct. It alone can initiate a move for of the vice-president. In other words, a resolution removal of the vice-president can be introduced only in Sabha and not in the Lok Sabha (Article 3 is correct. If a proclamation has been issued President for imposing national emergency or or financial emergency when the Lok Sabha has or the dissolution of the Lok Sabha took place within

35. #355Practice set
    Which of the following changes were made by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019?
    • AIt removed the constitutional provision of nominating Anglo- Indians to Parliament as well as State legislatures in India
    • BIt declared Anglo Indian community as a separate Ethnic and Linguistic mi nor ity in India
    • CIt established the "Anglo-Indian Commission" as a constitutional body to safeguard and protect their rights
    • DIt added the definition of Anglo-Indians to the Indian Constitution for the first time
    Answer: (A) It removed the constitutional provision of nominating Anglo- Indians to Parliament as well as State legislatures in India
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct 104 Amendment of Indian Constitution deadline for the abolition of the reservation of seats years in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled ended the nomination provision for Anglo a is correct: The 104th Constitutional the constitutional provision Anglo-Indian communities to Parliament as State legislatures in India. Prior to this CAA, could nominate two members to Lok Sabha Governor of the State can nominate one member to Legislative b is incorrect: The 104th CAA is not related the Anglo-Indian communities as a and Linguistic minority in India. Recently the communities have been demanding the Parliament them as a Separate Ethnic and Linguistic minority them to protect their c is incorrect: The 104th CAA is not related the Anglo-Indian Commission to rights of Anglo Indian. The Anglo-Indian been demanding the government to co

36. #356Practice set
    With reference to "Other Backward Classes (OBC)" in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India does not define the term "Other Backward Classes". 2. The Constitution of India provides reservation benefits for OBCs in the Lok Sabha in proportion to their total population. Eli 3. The 105 th Constitutional Amendment Act (CAA) denied State Governments the authority to identify Backward Classes (BCs) for the purpose of reserving State government jobs.How many of the above-given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct Backward classes (OBCs) means such of citizens, other than the Scheduled Castes Tribes, as may be specified by the in the lists. Backward Class (BC) communities that are classified as economically backward by a particular l is correct: It is true that the Constitution does not define Other Backward classes 366 of the constitution of India which terms mentioned in the constitution, does not constitutes Backward classes in 2 is incorrect: While the Constitution of reservation benefits for Scheduled castes Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State in proportion to their total population in it does not provide the same benefits to in Parliament (Rajya Sabha Lok Sabha) nor 3 is incorrect: The 102nd Act (CAA) added Article to of India, empowers the President to group as Backward Classes in after in consultation with the Governor. court with respect to Article held that has no p

37. #357Practice set
    With reference to the Committee of Parliament on Official Language, consider the following statements: 1. The members of the Committee on Official Language are elected from both houses of Parliament. 2. The Union Minister of Culture is the ex- officio chairman of the committee. 3. The Committee reviews the progress made in the use of Hindi for official purposes of the Union.How many of the above-given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct answer, Statement l is correct: The Rules of Procedure and Business in Lok Sabha provide that at the the House or from time to time, as the case may be, the shall nominate from amongst the Members of not more than ten 2 is correct: Any one member of panel may preside over the House in the absence Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, Minister cannot be of panel of 3 is incorrect: A member of the panel cannot preside over the House, when of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker is such time, the Speaker's duties are to be such member of the House as the esident may the purpose. Important Tips The Panel of Vice-Chairpersons in Rajya Sabha: The members are nominated from the members of the Rajya Sabha by the Chairperson and has the same powers as the Chairman when so presiding. A member of the panel of vice chairpersons cannot preside over the House, when the office of the Cha

38. #358Practice set
    Consider the following statements: 1. The provision of universal adult franchise of Indian Constitution came into force on November 26, 1949. 2. Since independence, India has followed the system of single member parliamentary and assembly constituencies.Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct refers to right to vote of the people to vote their representative. The Indian Constitution adult franchise as a basis of elections to the and the state legislative assemblies. Every citizen not less than 18 years of age has a right to vote without of caste, race, religion, sex, literacy, so on. The voting age was reduced to 18 years from in 1989 by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act l is incorrect: Provisions related to franchise are incorporated under Article 326 Constitution. The first draft electoral roll based franchise was ready just before the enactment constitution. The provision of universal adult finally enacted in the Constitution in 1949 and force on January 26, 2 is incorrect: The Two- Member Act, 1961 provided for the abolition of two member parliamentary and assembly constituencies the creation of single member constituencies in

39. #359Full-length test
    Consider the following statements about the Parliamentary Privileges: 1. The press doesn't enjoy the freedom to publish reports of secret sittings of the house. 2. The parliamentary privileges extend to the President. 3. Individual members g the parliamentary session arrested in any case. 4. All members of the privilege committee of the Parliament are nominated by the Presiding officers of respective house.How many of the above given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll the four
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct 1 is correct. The house of the Parliament has to publish its reports, debates and proceedings and right to prohibit others from publishing the same. Amendment Act of 1978 restored the freedom of to publish true reports of parliamentary prior permission of the House. But this is in the case of a secret sitting of the 2 is incorrect. Parliamentary privileges do to the president who is also an integral part of 3 is incorrect, Individual member of cannot be arrested during the session and 40 days before the beginning and 40 the end of a session. This privilege is available civil cases and not in criminal cases or 4 is correct. This privileges Committee of the consi of 15 members (10 members in case are nominated by the Speaker (In case Lok sabha) and by the Chairman (in case of the

40. #360Full-length test
    Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the election of Members of the Rajya Sabha?
    • AIt is based on the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote
    • BThe member need not to domicile of the state from which 1" is elected to Rajya Sabha
    • CThe voting for these dections is held only through a secret ballot system
    • DOnly an elected rnember of a State Legislative is eligible to vote in these elections. 80
    Answer: (C) The voting for these dections is held only through a secret ballot system
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct answer { } Rajya Sabha is the upper House of Indian maximum strength is 250 members, out of which 13 be the members nominated by the President. At strength of Rajya Sabha is 245 members. Unlike members of Rajya Sabha are not elected directly people of a is correct: The representatives of states Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Assemblies. The election is held in the system of proportional representation by means single transferable b is correct: The member of Rajya Sabha need be the domicile of the state from which he/she is Rajya c is incorrect: Section 59 of the Representation Act, 1951 makes it mandatory to vote in Rajya through a system of open ballot (and not d is correct: According to Article 80( 4) of only elected members of a State are eligible to vote in Rajya Sabha polls. Important Tips Is NOTA option applicable in Rajya Sabha elections? N

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