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Parliament — UPSC Prelims Polity previous year questions — page 4

371 solved previous year questions on Parliament, papers from 1990 to 2023, drawn from UPSC CDS, State PCS, UPSC CAPF. Each carries the printed answer key and the explanation from the source compilation.

1. #121UPSC CDS 2014
   Which one of the following statements regarding the Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the empowerment of women is correct?
   • AThe Committee will consist of members of the Lok Sabha only
   • BA Cabinet Minister can be a member of the Committees
   • CThe term of office of the members of the Committee shall not exceed two years
   • DIt reports on the working of welfare programmes for the women
   Answer: (D) It reports on the working of welfare programmes for the women
   Explanation

   Option d is the correct answer. Departmentally Related Standing Committee (DRSC) evolved as a Parliamentary innovation in 1993. It has evolved as a mini parliament with proportional representation of all parties There are 24 DRSCs at present with 31 members each 21 from Lok sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha. The term of office of these committees doesn't exceed one year. The Parliamentary committees are of two kinds - standing or permanent committees and ad hoc committees Important Tips The Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of Women was constituted in 1997. It has 30 members, 20 from the Lok Sabha 10 from the Rajya Sabha. The mandate of the Committee is to review and monitor the measures taken by the Union Government in the direction of securing for women equality, status and dignity in all matters. The functions of the Committee include, inter-alia, considering the reports submitted by

2. #122UPSC CDS 2014
   Which of the statements relating to the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is/are correct? 1. The office of the Deputy Speaker acquired a more prominent position after the enforcement of the Constitution of India in 1950. 2. He/She is elected from amongst the members. 3. He/She holds office until he/she ceases to be a member of the House.Select the correct answer using the codes given below
   • AOnly 1
   • B1 and 2
   • C1, 2 and 3
   • D2 and 3
   Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct answer. The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the vice- Presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. He/She is elected from amongst the member Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Parliament of India Deputy speaker acts as the presiding offier in case of leave or absence of speaker of the Lok Sabha. He holds the office till either he ceases to be member of the Lok Sabha or resigns himself. Important Tips The institutions of Speaker deputy speaker originated in India in 1921 under the provisions of GOI act of The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. (Article 93) The date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President. The date of election of the deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker. When Lok Sabha is dissolved. Speaker does not vacate office and continues till the newly elected Lok Sabha meets. G.V. Mavalankar Ananthasayanam Ayyangar had the

3. #123UPSC CDS 2014
   The functions of the committee on estimates, as incorporated in the Constitution of India, shall be to report what economies, improvements in organisation, efficiency or administrative reform may be effected. 2. suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration. 3. examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates. 4. examine the reports, if any, of the Comptroller and Auditor General on the public undertakings. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
   • A1 and 2
   • B2 and 3
   • C1, 2 and 3
   • D3 and 4
   Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct answer. The first estimates committee in the post-independence was constituted in 1950 on the recommendation of John Mathai, Finance function of the committee are to report what economies, improvements in organisation, efficiency or administrative reform consistent with the policy underlying estimates can be affected. suggest the form in which the estimates are to presented to Parliament. suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration. examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates Important Tips Estimates Committee 30 members (Lok Sabha) Members elected by Proportional representation; Term (1 year); No Membership of minister; Chairman appointed by Speaker. Function: Scrutinizes the Estimates Presented in the Budget

4. #124UPSC CDS 2014
   Which of the following statements are correct regarding Joint Session of the Houses of the Parliament in India? 1. It is an enabling provision. empowering the President to take steps for resolving deadlock between the two Houses, 2. It is not obligatory upon the President to summon the Houses to meet in a joint sitting. 3. It is being notified by the President. 4. It is frequently resorted to establish the supremacy of the Lok SabhaSelect the correct answer using the codes given below
   • A1 and 2
   • B1, 2 and 3
   • C2 and 3
   • D3 and 4
   Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3
   Explanation

   Option b is the correct answer. As per Article 108 of Constitution, a Joint session of Parliament can be summoned in the following situation: To resolve deadlock when any house of the Parliament passes a bill and when the other House rejects this bill, or The houses do not agree on the amendments made to the bill, More than six months elapsed with the bill being received by the other House without it being passed. However, in calculating the period of six months, those days are not considered when house is prorogued or adjourned for more than 4 consecutive days. According to the Indian Constitution, there are two exceptions when a joint sitting cannot be They are for the following bills: Money Bill and constitution amendment The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by the President and is presided over by the Speaker Article 108 has laid down the provisions for calling a joint sitti

5. #125UPSC CAPF 2016
   Who among the following may be the Chairman of the Zila Parishad?
   • AChief Minister
   • BDistrict Collector
   • CMember of Parliament in the District
   • DElected from its own members
   Answer: (C) Member of Parliament in the District
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct answer. In case the Deputy Speaker is presiding the Lok Sabha, the right to take part in its deliberations, vote on before the house as a member, and vote in of equality of votes. He also has the right to preside sitting of the House of Parliament in case the absent. Important Tips Few facts about the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha: The Deputy Speaker is the second-highest-ranking officer in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. The Deputy Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from among themselves The Deputy Speaker presides over the Lok Sabha in the absence of the Speaker. The Deputy Speaker has the same powers and privileges as the Speaker, except for the power to decide whether a bill is a money bill or not. The Deputy Speaker holds office for a term of five years, or until the Lok Sabha is dissolved. The Deputy Speaker is respon

6. #126UPSC CSE Prelims 2012
   According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following? 1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission 2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee 3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General 4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled CastesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below
   • A1 only
   • B2 and 4 only
   • C1, 3 and 4 only
   • D1, 2, 3 and 4
   Answer: (C) 1, 3 and 4 only
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the India to cause to be laid before the Parliament following reports

7. #127UPSC CSE Prelims 2009
   The decision to the person declared convict by the Court to contest the elections has been made by
   • AThe Government of India
   • BThe Supreme Court
   • CThe Election Commission
   • DThe Parliament
   Answer: (D) The Parliament
   Explanation

   Option d is the correct 8 of the Representation of the People Act, that a person who has been convicted of a sentenced to imprisonment for two years or more from contesting elections to Parliament or Legislatures. It is a law made by Parliament. of the Constitution of India provides that a be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, of either House of Parliament if he is so or under any law made by Parliament

8. #128UPPCS 2021
   A member of State Public Service Commission may be removed by
   • AThe Governor on the basis of impeachment in Vidhan Sabha
   • BThe Governor, after the enquiry conducted by the Supreme Court
   • CThe President, after the enquiry conducted by the Supreme Court
   • DThe Governor, after the enquiry conducted by the High Court
   Answer: (A) The Governor on the basis of impeachment in Vidhan Sabha
   Explanation

   Option a is the correct deadlock between the and the a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage ordinary legislation in the above situation Joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery provided by to resolve a deadlock between the two the passage of a bill. It must be noted here that of joint sitting is applicable to ordinary bills bills only and not to money bills or bills. In the case of a money bill, the Lok overriding powers, while a Constitutional must be passed by each House Solution Option b is the correct Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) is preparation and presentation to the Parliament of Budget and the Budgets for the State President's Rule and Union Territory Administration

9. #129State PCS 2020
   Who is not included in the Committee to recommend name for the appointment of Chairperson and members of State Human Rights Commission?
   • AChief Minister
   • BSpeaker of the Legislative Assembly
   • CIncharge of the Department of Home Affairs
   • DGovernor n-ilm
   Answer: (D) Governor n-ilm
   Explanation

   Option d is the correct major cleavage in global human rights discourse is between civil and political rights on one hand, social, and cultural rights on the other is often a debate and tension between these of rights, as they require different resource allocation. Some argue that civil and are fundamental and must be prioritized, while the importance of economic, social, and for achieving social justice and equality

10. #130State PCS 2019
    Who is not a member of the committee for the appointment of Chairperson and members of the National Human Rights Commission?
    • ASpeaker of the House of People
    • BChairman of the Council of States
    • CLeader of opposition in the House of People
    • DLeader of opposition in the Council of States
    Answer: (B) Chairman of the Council of States
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct Chairman of the Council of States is not a the committee. Section 2, 3 and 4 of The Protection Rights Act, 1993 lay down the rules for the NHRC. The Chairperson and members of are appointed by the President of India, on of a committee consisting of: The Prime Minister (Chairperson) The Home Minister The Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha (Lower The Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha (Upper House) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha (Lower House) The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Upper House) Important Tips The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, NHRC Composition: The Act allowed a former Chief Justice or Judge of the Supreme Court to become NHRC's chairperson. The number of members increased from two to three, with at least one member being a woman. Chairpersons of commissions for Backward Classes, Child Rights, and Disabilities would also j

11. #131UPSC CSE Prelims 2020
    Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which in dude "The Macro Economic Framework Statement'. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by
    • ALong standing parliamentary convention
    • BArticle 112 and Article of the Constitution of India
    • CArticle 113 of the Constitution of India
    • DProvisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
    Answer: (D) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management mandates that Central Government shall lay in year before both Houses of Parliament the (along with the annual financial the Medium-term Fiscal Policy the Fiscal Policy Strategy the Macro-economic Framework the Medium-term Expenditure Framework Framework Statement provides of the economy containing an assessment fiscal balance of the Central Government, Price GDP growth rate, and the external of the economy l m

12. #132UPSC CSE Prelims 2017
    For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
    • Aanyone residing in India
    • Ba resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested
    • Cany citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency
    • Dany citizen of India
    Answer: (C) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct to section 4 (d) of the Representation of 1951, for election to Lok Sabha, a nomination be filed by any citizen whose name appears in rolls of any parliamentary Constitution lays down the following qualifications for to be chosen a member of the Parliament

13. #133UPSC CSE Prelims 1997
    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason Assertion (A): The reservation of thirty-three percent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislature does not require a Constitutional amendment. Reason Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three percent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment. In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?
    • ABoth (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    • BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
    • C(A) is true but, (R) is false
    • D(A) is false hut, (R) is true
    Answer: (D) (A) is false hut, (R) is true
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct I is incorrect- The elections for the post and Deputy-Speaker of Lok Sabha and the of Rajya Sabha are conducted by the of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya 2 is incorrect- Local body elections, for municipalities and municipal corporations, by the respective State Election Commissions 3 is incorrect- The power to make a all the doubts and disputes arising from the election President and Vice President is vested in the and for election to Parliament and State vested in High Court. Important Tips Some important functions of the Election Commission of India: Delimitation of Electoral Constituencies: The Election Commission is responsible for determining the territorial areas of electoral constituencies across the country, ensuring a fair and equitable distribution of constituencies based on the Delimitation Commission Act. Electoral Roll Preparation and Revision: The E

14. #134UKPSC 2016
    Who recognizes the political parties in India?
    • APresident of India
    • BElection Commission of India
    • CMinistry of Law and Justice
    • DSpeaker of Lok Sabha
    Answer: (C) Ministry of Law and Justice
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct Government of India Act, 1919, established the Commission in India for the first time. Public service commission was set up in 1926 Civil servants. The Public Service set up to oversee the recruitment and appointments civil services of the British India government

15. #135CGPSC 2021
    What is true about gallantry award 'Param Vir Chakra'?
    • AThis award can be given to an individual only once in his/her lifetime
    • BOn its medal, four replicas of 'Indra Vajra' are embossed
    • CTill 31st December 2021, 25 people have been awarded with Param Vir Chakra
    • DThis award was instituted on 26th January
    Answer: (B) On its medal, four replicas of 'Indra Vajra' are embossed
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct (A) is true: Constitution of India does not term "minority". The term is used in several articles Constitution, but it is not defined (R) is true: The Minority Commission, also known National Commission for Minorities, is a statutory by an Act of Parliament (National Minorities Act, (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain The two statements are independent of each there is no causal relationship between both statements

16. #136State PCS 2017
    Which of the following may be considered a Pressure Group?
    • AMembers of the Lok Sabha
    • BMembers of a Panchayat
    • CMembers of the Cabinet
    • DMembers of a Trade Union
    Answer: (D) Members of a Trade Union
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct pressure group is an organized group of people to influence government policy. They do not but they try to influence the government protesting, and other forms of of a trade union are a pressure group because to influence government policy on issues such as conditions, and benefits. They do this by officials, organizing strikes, and other forms

17. #137UPSC CDS 2020
    Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS)?
    • AMembers of the Parliament (MPs) sanction, execute and complete works under the scheme
    • BNominated Members of the Parliament can recommend works for implementation anywhere in the country
    • CThe scheme is fully funded by the Government of India
    • DThe annual entitlement per MP is 5 crores
    Answer: (A) Members of the Parliament (MPs) sanction, execute and complete works under the scheme
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct do not personally sanction, execute, and complete the Members of Parliament Local Area (MPLADS). Their role is to recommend to the District Authorities or District Collectors, responsible for the implementation and execution of nmm Important Tips MPLADS is a Central Sector Scheme introduced in December 1993. MPs receive Rs. 5 crores annually in two instalments for MPLADS, and the funds are non-lapsable. Lok Sabha MPs are required to recommend projects to the district authorities within their respective Lok Sabha constituencies, whereas Rajya Sabha MPs are expected to allocate funds within the state that elected them to the House. Nominated Members of both the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha have the authority to recommend works anywhere in the country. MPLADS funds can be used for various schemes such as Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, Accessible India Campaign, water conservati

18. #138UPSC CDS 2020
    The First Delimitation Commission in India was constituted in
    • A1949 83
    • B1950
    • C1951
    • D1952
    Answer: (D) 1952
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct First Delimitation Commission in India was 1952. The Delimitation Commission is responsible the boundaries of parliamentary and based on population changes and Important Tips The Delimitation Commission is a statutory body in India responsible for redrawing the boundaries of parliamentary and assembly constituencies. The first Delimitation Commission was established in 1952, and subsequent commissions have been formed when needed. The purpose of the Delimitation Commission is to ensure fair representation by redefining constituency boundaries based on changes in population, geographical factors, and other relevant considerations. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and consists of a Chief Election Commissioner or Election Commissioner as the ex-officio chairperson, along with other members nominated by the President. The Delimitation

19. #139Practice set
    Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian Independence Act of 1947: 1. The Act made the Constituent Assembly of India a fully sovereign body. 2. made the Constituent Assembly the first Parliament of free India. 3. The office of the Governor-General of India was abolished by the Act.How many statements given above are correct? Practice
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct l is correct. The Indian Independence Act made the Constituent Assembly a fully which could frame any Constitution it pleased. The the Assembly to abrogate or alter any law the Britir.h Parliament in relation to 2 is correct. The Act also made the Assembly body. In other words, two separate functions Practiceboo assigned to the Assembly, that is, making of the free India and enacting of ordinary laws for the the Assembly became the first Parliament of (Dominion 3 is incorrect. The Act abolished the office but provided for a Governor-General, who be appointed by the British King on the advice of cabinet

20. #140Practice set
    Consider the following statements regarding Indian Independence Act of 1947: 1. It deprived the Viceroy of India of legislative powers and retained the office merely as a ceremonial position. 2. It allowed the princely states either to join India or Pakistan but denied the right to remain independent. 3. It discontinued the appointment to civil services by the secretary of state for India. 4. It abolished the office of secretary of state for India. PraclkeboukHow many statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll four
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option bis the correct l is incorrect. The Indian Independence Act 7 deprived the.British Monarch of all the rights bills. And all the legislative powers were delegated to the respective constituent assemblies. It abolished of Viceroy of India and appointed each 2 is The Indian Independence Act proclaimed the lapse of British paramountcy over princely states and treaty relations with tribal August 15, 1947. It allowed the princely states join India or Pakistan but it also provided that they 3 is correct. The Indian Independence Act discontinued the appointment to civil services of posts by the secretary of state for India. of the civil services appointed before August would continue to enjoy all benefits that they to till that 4 is correct. The Indian Independence Act abolished the office of secretary of state for transferred its functions to the secretary of state for affairs

21. #141Practice set
    Which of the following advocated for universal adult franchise during pre independence period in India? 1. The Constitution of India Bill, 1895 2. Nehru report, 1928 3. Government of India act, 1919 4. Lucknow pact, 1916Select the correct answer using the code given below
    • A3 and 4 only
    • B1, 2 and 4 only
    • C2, 3 and 4 only
    • D1 and 2 only
    Answer: (D) 1 and 2 only
    Explanation

    Option dis the correct significant strand of the Indian freedom movement around demands for universal adult franchise. of India Bill 1895, the Nehru report 1928 Report 1945 advocated for universal adult pre independence period in l is correct. Earliest of effort which advocated adult franchise was the Constitution of 1895 that gave every citizen 'a right to give one vote a member to the Parliament of India and one 2 is correct. The Nehru Report 1928 stated person of either sex who has attained the age of is not disqualified by law, shall be entitled to vote'. years leading up to the setting up of the more Indian historical constitutions like Constitution of Free India 1946, Ambedkar's Minorities 1945, provided for universal adult 3 is incorrect. Government of India act 1919, provide for adult suffrage. The voting right then to certain eligibility criteria like property ownership, payment

22. #142Practice set
    With reference to the difference between East India Company Rule and British Crown Rule in India, consider the following statements: I. While local government did not have any financial powers under East India Company rule, they were given power to impose taxes under Crown rule. 2. While East India Company rule completely excluded Indians from civil services, Crown rule paved the way for their recruitment in administration.Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct 1858, the British Parliament passed the Government Act, transferring British power over India from India l is incorrect. The local government were excluded from exercising governance under Company rule. For example: The Charter Act of the Local Governments in India to on Ripon brought the Resolution of 1882, which the right to local self-government. The local self-government would develop the which had been under the direct control of 2 is incorrect. The Charter Act of an open competition system of selection of civil servants. The covenanted civil thus, thrown open to the Indians also. Thus, brought into administration under East India 1886 the Civil service came to be called the Imperial In 1886, the Aitchison Commission Indians also get employed in public service

23. #143Practice set
    With reference to 'Indian Council Act of 1861', consider the following statements: 1. It restored the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies. 2. It established a 15-member Council of India to assist the secretary of state for India. 3. It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors. 4. It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances without the concurrence of the legislative council.How many of the above given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll four
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the conrect the great revolt of 1857, the British Government necessity of seeking the cooperation of the Indians administration of their country. In pursuance of of association, three acts were enacted by the in 1861, 1892 and l is correct: Indian Councils Act of the legislative powers to the Bombay and which had been taken away by the Charter 2 is incorrect: Government of India Act of Indian Councils Act of 1861) established a of India to assist the secretary of state for council was an advisory 3 is incorrect: The Government of India ended the system of doub 1 government by Board of Control and Co, i: of 4 is correct: The Indian Act of the Viceroy to make rules and orders for convenient transaction of business in the council. gave recognition to the 'portfolio' system, Lord Canning in 1859. The Act empowered the issue ordinances, without the concurrenu; of council, during a

24. #144Practice set
    With reference to 'Constituent Assembly', consider the following statements: 1. The assembly was empowered to alter any law made by the British Parliament in relation to India. 2. The members of the Muslim League from the Indian Dominion never entered the Assembly. 3. Both H.C. Mukherjee and V.T. Krishnamachari were elected as the Vice- Presidents of the Assembly. 4. Dr Sachchidanand Sinha acted as the chairperson of the assembly whenever it met as the legislative body.How many of the above given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll four
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct l is correct: The Indian Independence Act of 194 the changes in the position of the Assembly. The assembly a fully sovereign body. The act Assembly to abrogate or alter any law made by Parliament in relation to 2 is incorrect: After the acceptance of Plan of June 3, 1947 for a partition of Practicebo mh,rnm country, the representatives of most of the other took their seats in the Assembly. The members of League from the Indian Dominion also Assembly. The Muslim League members (hailing areas included in the Pakistan) withdrew from Assembly for 3 is correct: Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Assembly. Similarly, both and V. T. Krishnamachari were elected as of the 4 is incorrect: Constituent Assembly also first Parliament of free India (Dominion the Assembly met as the Constituent body chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad and when it met as body, it was chaired

25. #145Practice set
    With reference to the system of checks and balances in the constitution, which of the following statements is correct?
    • AIt enables the legislature to hold more power over the executive and the judiciary
    • BIt is antithetical to the concept of division of powers in a political structure
    • CArticle 13 is an example of the system of checks and balances in India
    • DSingle party majority in the parliament strengthens the system of checks and balances
    Answer: (C) Article 13 is an example of the system of checks and balances in India
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct c is correct. Article 13 is an example of the checks and balances in India. It is related to concept review where the judiciary can strike clown by the parliament that are deemed ultra-vires to Important Tips The system of checks and balances enables each of the three branches of government to limit the powers of the others. This way, no one branch becomes too powerful. The system of checks and balances is antithetical to the system of separation of powers and not division of powers. Separation of powers refer to the segregation of powers between various organs of the state, viz., the executive, legislature and the judiciary. The concept of division of powers refer to the segregation of powers between various levels of the government, viz., the centre, the states and local governments. Single party majority in the parliament weakens the system of checks and balanc

26. #146Practice set
    The main advantage of the padiamenta.ry form of governments is that
    • AThe executive and legislature work independently
    • BIt provides continuity of policy and is more efficient
    • CThe executive remains responsible to the legislature
    • DThe head of the government cannot be changed without election
    Answer: (C) The executive remains responsible to the legislature
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct c is correct. The main characteristic of form of government is that the responsible to the legislature for its policies and ministers are collectively responsible to the general and to the Lok Sabha in particular. The collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha the council of ministers headed by the prime office by passing a vote of no confidence. Important Tips The parliamentary system is based on the principle of co-operation and co-ordination between the legislative and executive organs. Whereas the presidential system is based on the doctrine of separation of powers between the two organs. In the parliamentary system of government, there is a lack of continuity of policies. The parliamentary system is not conductive for the formulation and implementation of long-term policies owing to the uncertainty of the tenure of the government. A change in the ru

27. #147Practice set
    Match the following pairs:Feature borrowed Source 1. Office of the A. Canadian Governor constitution 2. Advisory B. South African jurisdiction of constitution Supreme court 3. Joint sitting of C. Australian two houses of constitution Parliament 4. Election of D. Government of members of India Act 1935 Rajya sabhaSelect the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1- A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
    • B1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
    • C1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
    • D1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
    Answer: (B) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct is correct. The office of the Governor from the Government of India Act is correct. The advisory jurisdiction of was borrowed from the Canadian 3-C is correct. The Joint sitting of two houses was borrowed from the Australian is correct The Election of members of Rajya borrowed from the South African constitution

28. #148Practice set
    Which of the following is/are salient features of the Constitution of India? 1. Three-tier Governance model 2. Judicial Supremacy over parliamentary sovereignty 3. Blend of Rigidity and Flexibility 4. Larger dependence on Conventions 5. Single CitizenshipHow many statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly two
    • BOnly three
    • COnly four
    • DAll five
    Answer: (B) Only three
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct Indian Constitution is unique in its contents and Constitution of India has several salient features it from the Constitutions of the other 1, 3 and 5 are Government: Originally, the Indian any other federal Constitution, provided for a dual contained provisions with regard to the organisation of the Centre and the states. Later, the 73rd and Amendment Acts (1992) have added a third tier of Government (i.e., local) which is not found in Constitution of the of Rigidity and Flexibility: The Constitution is neither rigid nor flexible, but a synthesis of provisions of the Constitution can be amended by majority of the Parliament in the manner of process. Some other provisions can be amended special majority of the Parliament and with the half of the total Citizenship: Though the Indian Constitution and envisages a dual polity (Centre and states), for only a single cit

29. #149Practice set
    Which of the following statements proves that the authority of Indian Constitution is higher than that of Parliament?
    • AThe Constitution makers were more eminent leaders than the Members of Parliament
    • BThe Constitution of India was framed before the Parliament came into existence
    • CIndian Constitution provides for powers and formation of the Parliament
    • DThe Constitution gives the power to Parliament to alter its Basic Structure
    Answer: (C) Indian Constitution provides for powers and formation of the Parliament
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct Constitution of India which was adopted by Assembly on 26th November 1949 and force on 26th January 1950. The Constituent a lot of time on evolving the right balance among institutions like the executive, the legislature and The specifies how parliament is formed and what its powers are. Thus, it is the source for the a is incorrect: It is not a valid reason to prove authority of Indian Constitution is higher than that We cannot say constitution makers were leaders than the Members of b is incorrect: Even though before the Parliament came into existence, it correctly explain as to why the authority of is higher than that of d is incorrect: The basic structure doctrine in initially Indian constitution. Its aim was to put on the amending powers of Parliament so 'basic structure of the basic law of the land' cannot in the exercise of its 'constituent power' under

30. #150Practice set
    Consider the following pairs of features of the Indian Constitution and the countries from which they were borrowed:Source /Borrowed From l. Cabinet system United States Constitution 2. Vesting of residual Canadian powers with the Constitution Centre 3. Advisory French jurisdictions of the Constitution Supreme court 4. Freedom of trade, Japanese commerce and Constitution inter-courseHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll four
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct Constitution of India has borrowed many other l is incorrectly matched. Cabinet system is the 2 is correctly Vesting of residual powers Centre are derived from the Canadian 3 is incorrectly matched. Advisory jurisdiction court is derived from the Canadian 4 is incorrectly features borrowed Constitution: Concurrent List, freedom of and inter-course, and joint sitting of the of Parliament. Important Tips Other features borrowed from British constitution - Parliamentary government, Rule of I.aw, legislative procedure, single citizenship, cabinet system, writs, parliamentary bicameralism US Constitution - Fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of the president, removal of Supreme Court and high court judges and post of vice-president. French Constitution - Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble.

31. #151Practice set
    With reference to the Indian and British Parliamentary System, consider the following statements: 1. Both the Indian and British Parliamentary systems are based on Doctrine of the Sovereignty of Parliament. 2. In both the systems, the Prime Minister must be from the lower house of Parliament. 3. Britain has the system of legal responsibility of the ministers, while India has no such system. 4. Both the systems have an elected Head of the State.How many of the above given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct though the Indian parliamentary system is on the British pattern, there are some between the two. Statement l is incorrect: The British system is based doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament, while is not supreme in India and enjoys restricted powers due to a written Constitution, judicial review and fundamental Statement 2 is incorrect: In Britain, the Prime be a member of the Lower House of Parliament. the Prime Minister may be a member of any of Houses of 3 is correct: In India, there is no of the minister. While Britain has the responsibility of the minister. Unlike in Britain, in India are not required to countersign the of the Head of the 4 is incorrect: India has a republican system of British monarchical system. In other words, of the State in India (that is, President) is the Head of the State in Britain (that is, King enjoys a hereditary position

32. #152Practice set
    Consider the following statements:l. Indian parliament is a sovereign body similar to British parliament. 2. Indian state has an elected head while the Britain state has hereditary head. 3. Political sovereignty in India is with the people and not in a single individual.How many statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone Preamble
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct l is incorrect. Even though the System is largely based on the British are some fundamental differences between the Indian Parliament is not a sovereign body like 2 is correct. The Indian State has an elected is why it is called as republic while the British State head what we call as 3 is correct. India is a republic which sovereignty lies with the people and not in a like a king. It also means the absence of class and hence all public offices being opened citizen without any discrimination. Preamble

33. #153Practice set
    This term from the Constitution indicates that India has an elected head of the state. H supports vesting of political sovereignty in the people uf Lhe country. It also indicates the absence of any privileged class and all public offices being opened to every citizen without any discrimination. Which of the following terms best defines this attribute of India as a Nation-State?
    • AEquality
    • BRepublic
    • CParliamentary Democracy
    • DLiberty
    Answer: (B) Republic
    Explanation

    Option lb is the correct b is correct. The term 'republic' in our that India has an elected head called He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of A republic also means two more things: one, political in the people and not in a like a king; second, the absence of any and hence all public offices being opened to without any discrimination. Important Tips The term 'equality' means the absence of special privileges to any section of the society, and the provision of adequate opportunities for all individuals without any discrimination. The Preamble secures to all citizens of India equality of status and opportunity. The provision embraces three dimensions of equality civic, political and economic Democracy is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty, that is, possession of supreme power by the people. The Indian Constitution provides for representative parliamentary democracy under

34. #154Practice set
    With reference to Indian Polity, the concept of 'Principled Distance' is related to
    • AJudicial Activism and Parliamentary Approval
    • BDual Polity Federal Structure
    • CSeparation between religion and state
    • DIndestructible nature of States
    Answer: (C) Separation between religion and state
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct Distance' is a model of secularism. of government institutions and persons represent the state from religious institutions and India separation between religion and state did not mutual exclusion but rather principled distance. the state to be distant from all religions so that intervene or abstain from interference, which of these two would better promote and social justice

35. #155Practice set
    Consider the following pairs regarding the various types of instruments in Direct Democracy and their description:Instrument Description 1. Referendum A procedure whereby a proposed legislation is referred to the electorate for settlement by their direct votes. 2. Initiative A method by means of which the people can propose a bill to the legislature for enactment. 3. Recall A method by means of which the voters can remove an officer before the expiry of his term. 4. Plebiscite A method of obtaining the opinion of people on any issue of public importance.How many of the above given pairs are correctly matched?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll four
    Answer: (D) All four
    Explanation

    Option dis the correct is of two types-direct and indirect. In the people exercise their supreme power is the case in Switzerland. There are four devices of namely, Referendum, Initiative, Recall 1 is correctly matched: Referendum is a a proposed legislation is referred to the settlement by their direct 2 is correctly matched: Initiative is a method by which the people can propose a bill to the legislature 3 is correctly matched: Recall is a method by means the voters can remove a representative or an the expiry of his term, when he fails to discharge 4 is correctly matehe,l: Plebiscite Is a method the opinion of people on any issue of It is generally used to solve the H

36. #156Practice set
    If the name of a state in India needs to be changed, then: 1. Prior recommendation of the President is not necessary to introduce such a bill in the parliament. 2. Consent of the state legislature concerned is not required for such a bill. 3. The bill can be passed by a simple majority of the parliament.How many statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct l is incorrect. Article 3 of the the Parliament to form a new state, increase the area of any state and alter the boundaries name of any state. Such a bill can be introduced in only with the prior recommendation of 2 is correct. According to Article 3, such a bill, the President has to refer the the state legislature concerned for expressing its a specified period. Consent of the state legislature required for such a 3 is correct. The Constitution, under declares that laws made under Article 3 are not to as amendments of the Constitution 368. This means that such laws can be passed by majority and by the ordinary legislative process

37. #157Practice set
    With reference to the Article 2 and Article 3 of the Constitution, consider the following statements: 1. Article 2 relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of the Union of India. 2. Article 3 deals with the internal re- adjustment of the territories of the constituent states of the Union of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct I fa correct. Artide 2 empowers the iulu the Union of India, or establish, new such terms and conditions as it thinks fit'. Thus, Article two powers to the Parliament: (a) the power to the Union of India new states; and (b) the power new states. Article 2 relates to the admission of new states that are not part of the 2 is correct. Article 3, on the other hand, the formation of or changes in the existing states Union of India. In other words, Article 3 deals with re-adjustment of the territories of the of the Union of India

38. #158Practice set
    With reference to the changes in the territory of states/Union Territories in India, consider the following statements:l. The Indian Constitution requires Parliament to get the consent of all involved in creation/ merger of states. 2. A Parliamentary bill providing for alteration in the boundaries of a Union Territory must be referred to the legislature of the concerned Union Territory.Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct l is incorrect: As per Articles 2 and 3, at the Centre can create new states, or in existing states. They mention that does not need to gain the consent of the question for any of the activities mentioned before. can unilaterally create or merge or territorial feature of any state. To do so, only requiring a simple majority will be 2 is incorrect: A bill contemplating the the area/boundaries/name of a state can be introduced Parliament only with the prior recommendation of Also, before recommending the bill, the to refer the same to the state legislature expressing its views within a specified period. But, of a union territory, no reference need be made concerned legislature to ascertain its views and can itself take any action as it deems fit

39. #159Practice set
    Consider the following statements about the procedure for reo.rgani.sation of states in India: 1. States in India can be reorganised by the Parliament only by amending the Constitution under article 368. 2. A bill for the reorganisation of states can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President. 3. The President before his recommendation shall refer the state reorganisation bill to the respective state legislature for expressing its view. 4. The President is bound by the views of state legislature regarding the state reorganisation bill.How many of the above given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll four
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct to constitution of India (Article 2), by law admit into the Union, or establish, new States terms and conditions as it thinks 3 of the Constitution empowers the Parliament a new State by separation of territory from any State uniting two or more States or parts of States or by territory to a part of any State; (increase the area of (diminish the area of any State; (alter the any State; (e) alter the name of any l is incorrect: Article 4 of the that laws of the Parliament to give effect to of Article 2 and 3 of the Constitution shall deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for of Article 2 is correct: No bill for the purpose of states can be introduced in the on the recommendation of the 3 is correct: The President shall before recommendation, refer the bill to the Legislature of which is going to be affected by the changes the bill, for expressing its views

40. #160Practice set
    Consider the following statements with reference to the territorial integrity of the states in India: 1. The Parliament can redraw the political map of India according to its will. 2. The State Legislature can enlarge its territorial jurisdiction and possess the power of 'extra-territorial legislation' in some circumstances.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2 ( cl) Neither 1 nor 2 151
    • D3-2-1-4
    Answer: (A) 1 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct l is correct: The Constitution authorizes to form new states or alter the areas, names of the existing states without their consent. words, the Parliament can redraw the political India according to its 2 is incorrect: According to Article 245 of Constitution, only union government exercises legislation and state governments extra territorial legislation. Important Tips Article l deals with the name of the country and the type of polity. Article 2 empowers the Parliament to 'admit into the Union of India, or establish, new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit'. Article 3 details the power of parliament to _reorganize states and/or union territories

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