If Rajya Sabha passes a under Artide 249, Parliament can make a law with respect to certain matters in the State List. Under such a scenario, which one of the following statements is correct?

The resolution does not restrict the power of a state legislature to make laws on the same matter

The resolution must be passed with the pri or recommendation of the President of India

The resolution must be passed by a simple majority

The resolution remains in force for the period prescribed by the Rajya Sabha but not exceeding two years

Which of the following is incorrect regarding the ground for judicial review in India?

If it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it

If it infringes the Fundamental Rights

If it is repugnant to the constitutional provisions

Ifit fails to implement Directive Principles of State Policy on time

UPSC Prelims PYQ › Polity › Parliament

Parliament — UPSC Prelims Polity previous year questions — page 6

371 solved previous year questions on Parliament, papers from 1990 to 2023, drawn from UPSC CDS, State PCS, UPSC CAPF. Each carries the printed answer key and the explanation from the source compilation.

371 questions

10 pages

Polity

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#201Practice set
With reference to the territorial extent of Parliament and state legislatures, consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament of India can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. 2. The laws made by state legislatures are not applicable to any person residing outside the territorial limit of the state in any case. 3. The laws made by state legislatures can be made applicable to Indian Citizens and their property in any part of the world.How many of the above statements are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll Three
- DNone
Answer: (A) Only one
Explanation
Option a is the correct l is correct: The Parliament of India can for the whole or any part of the territory of territory of India may include the states, the and any other area for time being included in of 2 is incorrect: The laws made by the are not applicable outside the state, except is a sufficient nexus between the states and the Criminal Laws of Haryana will be applicable on a is a resident of other state, but committed crime territorial jurisdiction of 3 is incorrect: Parliament alone can make 'extraterrestrial legislation'. The laws of parliament are to the Indian Citizens and their property in of the world
#202Practice set
Consider the following statements: 1. A state while exercising its executive power must ensure compliance with the laws made by the Parliament. 2. Only the central government has the executive power of implementing a law made by the Parliament on any matter enumerated in Concurrent List.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Option a is the correct 1 is correct. The executive power has between the Centre and the states on the lines distribution of legislative powers, The Constitution two restrictions on the executive power of the order to give ample scope to the Centre for exercising power in an unrestricted manner. It says that power of every state is to be exercised in such (a) as to ensure compliance with the laws made by and any existing law which apply in the state; as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of of Centre in the 2 is incorrect. In respect of the matters concurrent list, both parliament and state the power to legislate, but the executive power the state except when a constitutional provision p,tdhunenlat y hrw lly nfers it on rn Therefore, a law on a concurrent subjecl, though enacted Parliament, is to be executed by the states except Constitution or the Parliament has directed otherwise
#203Practice set
To protect the interest of states in the financial matters, the Constitution lays down that certain bills can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President. In this contexl, which of the following are those 1. A bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested. 2. A bill which affects the principles on which money is distributed to states. 3. A bill which imposes any surcharge on any specified tax for the purpose of the Centre. 4. A bill which reduces the salaries and allowances of the members of Rajya Sabha.Select the correct answer using the codes given below
- A1 and 2 only
- B2, 3 and 4 only
- C1, 2 3 only
- D3 and 4 only
Answer: (C) 1, 2 3 only
Explanation
Option c is the correct answer 268 to 293 in Part XII of the Constitution deal financial relations. The constitution of divided the legislative, executive, and financial the centre and the 1, 2 and 3 are correct: In order to protect the states in the financial matters, the Constitution lays the following bills can be introduced in the on the recommendation of the President: A bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested; A bill which varies the meaning of the expression 'agricultural income' as defined for the purposes of the enactments relating to Indian income tax; A bill which affects the principles on which moneys are or may be distributable to states; and A bill which imposes any surcharge on any specified tax or duty for the purpose of the 4 is incorrect: A bill to regulate salaries of the members of Parliament can be amended simple majority of the tw
#204Practice set
If Rajya Sabha passes a under Artide 249, Parliament can make a law with respect to certain matters in the State List. Under such a scenario, which one of the following statements is correct?
- AThe resolution must be passed with the pri or recommendation of the President of India
- BThe resolution must be passed by a simple majority
- CThe resolution remains in force for the period prescribed by the Rajya Sabha but not exceeding two years
- DThe resolution does not restrict the power of a state legislature to make laws on the same matter
Answer: (D) The resolution does not restrict the power of a state legislature to make laws on the same matter
Explanation
Option d is the correct term 'State' has been used in different provisions of concerning the fundamental rights. Article the constitution has defined the term for the purposes i.e Fundamental rights. According to it, the the Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state All local authorities that is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, State has been defined in a wider sense so as all its agencies. It is the actions of these agencies that l'OU'. can be challenged in the courts as violating the According to the Supreme Court, even a or an agency working as an instrument of the within the meaning of the 'State' under Article
#205Practice set
Which of the following type of taxes are imposed and collected by the Centre but the proceeds are Lu the slates? 1. Stamp duties on promissory notes 2. Estate duty in respect of property other than agricultural land 3. Stamp duties on bills of exchange 4. Taxes on railway fares and freightsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 4 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D3 and 4 only
Answer: (B) 2 and 4 only
Explanation
Option b is the correct answer 268 to 293 in Part XII of the Constitution deal financial relations. Article 269 deals with that are levied and collected by the central are assigned to the state 2 and 4 are Duty, Central Sales Tax, Estate Duty, Taxes fares and freight, Estate duty in respect of than agricultural land are taxes that are imposed by the Centre but are assigned to the states. also do not come under Consolidation fund of l and 3 are incorrect: Stamp duties on hills cheques, promissory notes, policies of of shares are the taxes that levied by the centre and appropriated by the Solution Option c is the correct answer provides for grants-in-aid to the states from resources. There are two types of grants-in-aid, grants and discretionary a is incorrect: Article 275 empowers Parliament grants (known as statutory grants) to the states in need of financial assistance and not to every
#206Practice set
To prntect the interest of States in the financial matters, which of the following provrnwns were laid down by the Constitution of India? 1. A bill which varies any tax in which states are interested can be introduced in the Parliament only after consulting the State governments. 2. The Parliament can alter the definition of agricultural income only on the recommendation of the President. 3. A bill introduced in Parliament affecting the vertical distribution of taxes between centre and states can be introduced only on the recommendation of the Finance commission. Pradiceboo H 4. A bill that imposes any surcharge on tax for the purpose of the centre can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President.Select the correct answer using the code given below
- A1 and 4 only
- B2, 3 and 4 only
- C2 and 4 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (C) 2 and 4 only
Explanation
Option c is the correct answer protect the interest of states in the financial Constitution lays down following l is incorrect: A bill which varies any tax in are interested shall be introduced in the on the recommendation of the President (not with state 2 is correct: A bill which proposes to alter of agriculture income must be introduced in on the recommendation of the 3 is incorrect: The bill affecting the which money is distributed between centre and not to be recommended by the Finance such bill can be introduced in the Parliament the recommendation of the 4 is correct: It is true that the bill which surcharge on tax for the purpose of the centre can in the Parliament only on the the President. As the proceeds of surcharge are with the states, the divisible pool of finance to states would be affected. Thus, states would lesser share negatively impacting their finances Important Tips
#207Practice set
With reference to executive relations between the Centre and states as given in constitution of India, consider the following statements: 1. The Governor of a state, with the consent of the central government, can delegate executive functions of state to centre. 2. The parliament can delegate executive functions of central government to states, without the consent of states. 3. State legislature can delegate executive functions of state to centre.How many of the above given statements are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- COnly three
- DNone
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation
Option b is the correct answer distribution of executive functions between centre is rigid, the same as distribution oflegislative the constitution provides for of executive functions to mitigate rigidity a situation of 1 is correct: The Governor of a state, with of the central government, can delegate of state to centre. Similarly, the President of delegate executive functions of centre to state with of the state 2 is correct: It is true that the the parliament to delegate executive functions government to states without the consent of 3 is incorrect: While the constitution allows to delegate executive functions of centre to does not allow state legislature to delegate of state to centre. In the case of delegation only governors are allowed to delegate Important Tips Article 355 of the Indian Constitution: It imposes two duties in the Centre: To protect every state against external aggr
#208Practice set
In which of the following circumstances, Parliament can make laws on the subjects enumerated in the state lists? 1. If the legislative assembly of two or more states by simple majority passes a resolution recommending Parliament to make laws on the state subjects. 2. To implement the provisions of the Fundamental Duties. 3. If Rajya Sabha passes a resolution for the same supported by two-thirds of members present and voting.Select the correct answer using the code given below
- A1 and 3 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C2 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Option a is the correct answer empowers the Parliament to make laws matter enumerated in the State List under the l is correct: Parliament can make laws state subject if the legislatures of two or more resolutions, by simple majority, recommending to enact laws on a matter in the State List. A enacted applies only to those states which have 2 is incorrect: There is no such ground provisions of Fundamental duties) for to make laws on subjects enumerated in list. However, Parliament can make laws on state list effect to the international agreements or treaties. Statement 3 is correct: Parliament can make laws on the if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution two thirds of members present and voting. Raj ya that it is necessary in the national interest should make laws with respect to matters state subjects
#209Practice set
Which of the following are the features of Parliamentary system of government in India? 1. Stable government 2. Parliamentary sovereignty 3. Membership of the ministers in the legislature 4, party rule 5. Executive can dissolve the legislature before its expirySelect the correct answer using the code given below
- A1, 2, 4 and 5 only
- B2, 3 and 4 only
- C2 and 5 only
- D3, 4 and 5 only
Answer: (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
Option b is the correct the Indian constitution, Article 12 defines 'State' as used in different Articles of Part HI of It says that unless the context otherwise requires the includes the following; - The Government and Parliament of India, i.e., Executive and Legislature of the Union. The Government and Legislature of each State, i.e., Executive and Legislature of State. All local and other authorities within the territory of India. All local and other authorities under the control of the Government of Option a is incorrect: This statement defines the term the context of the discipline of Political Science. But not the definition of term 'state' that is defined by c is incon-ect: This statement defines the A nation is a community of people formed on of a common language, territory, ethnicity d is incorrect: A defined territory that forms with shared culture and ruled by sovereign the te
#210Practice set
Consider the following regarding inter-state trade and commerce? 1. Reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse within the state can only be imposed by the state legislalure. 2. A state legislature is prohibited from imposing tax on the imported cls the other state. 3. A state legislature cm Jqws which exclude certain sections of people from carrying out trade, business or ser'rice.How many of the above statements are incorrect?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll Three
- DNone
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation
Option b is the correct l is incorrect. Both the Parliament and can impose reasonable restrictions on of trade, commerce and intercourse within the the bill for 'this can be introduced in state legislature the previous sanction of 2 is incorrect. The legislature of a state on goods imported from other states or the any tax to which similar goods manufactured state are subject. This provision prohibits the discriminatory taxes by the 3 is correct. Both the Parliament and are allowed to make laws which can sections of people from carrying out trade, or service
#211Practice set
With regard to tax exemption provided to Central or states property, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Parliament can allow municipalities to impose taxes on property owned by the Central government. 2. Only the President can authorize the Centre to impose tax on commercial operations of state.Select the correct answer using the code given below
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Option a is the correct 1 is correct. Although Centre's properly from all taxes imposed by a state or boards and panchayats, but Parliament to remove this ban. Hence, Parliament municipalities to impose taxes on property owned Central 2 is incorrect. The commercial operations of exempted from the Centre's taxation. But the not the President) can authorize the Center to on commercial operations of
#212Practice set
Which of the following are the important provisions of the Constitution which create a strong central government? I. Parliament has the power to alter the name of a state 2. Emergency provisions 3. Office of the Governor of a state 4. Central government can give instructions to the state governmentSelect the correct answer from the codes given below: Practiceboo
- A1 and 3 only
- B1 and 4 only
- C1, 2 and 4 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Option d is the correct following features of the Constitution makes our a strong central government
#213Practice set
Consider the following pairs of features of the Indian constitution and their sources:Feature Source 1. Cabinet system United States Constitution 2. Vesting of residual Canadian powers with Centre Constitution 3. Advisory French jurisdictions of the Constitution Supreme courtHow many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll Three
- DNone k
Answer: (A) Only one
Explanation
Option a is the correct Constitution of India has borrowed many other l is incorrectly matched. Cabinet system is the British constitution. Other features borrowed constitution - Parliamentary government, Rule legislative procedure, single citizenship, cabinet writs, parliamentary privileges and 2 is correctly matched. Vesting of residual powers Centre are derived from the Canadian 3 is incorrectly matched. Advisory jurisdiction court is derived from the Canadian features borrowed from Canada - Federation with Centre, vesting of residuary powers in the of state governors by the Centre, and of the Supreme Court
#214Practice set
With reference to the River Boards Act, 1956 and 'River Boards' in India, consider the following statements: 1. The River Boards Act, 1956 was enacted under the provisions of Article 262 of the Constitution. 2. A River Board can be established by the state government after obtaining the permission from the President. 3. One of the objectives of the boards is to prepare schemes for the purpose of regulating an inter-state river.How many of the above given statements are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone BL
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation
Option b is the correct answer India, River Boards are statutory bodies established and develop the water resources of inter-state river basins. These bodies are established under Boards Act, l is correct: Article 262 of the for the adjudication of inter-state water makes two provisions: (i) Parliament may by law the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with the use, distribution and control of waters of any and river valley. (ii) Parliament may also provide the Supreme Court nor any other court is to in respect of any such dispute or this provision, the Parliament has enacted River Boards Act ( 1956) and the Inter-State Act ( 1956 Statement 2 is incorrect: A river board is established by government on the request of the state to advise 3 is correct: The main objective of River to promote integrated and coordinated development river systems and to regulate and develop in an equitable
#215Practice set
Consider the following statements regarding 'Inter-State Trade and Commerce in India': 1. State legislature can make laws providing for monopolies in favour of the states. 2. State legislature can impose restriction on the freedom of trade only after prior approval from the President. 3. Both Parliament and State Legislature can give preference to one state over another in the case of scarcity of goods in any part of India.How many of the above given statements are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation
Option b is the correct answer 301 to 307 in Part XIII of the with the trade, commerce and intercourse within of 1 is correct: Both Parliament and State make laws providing for monopolies in favour of That means, or the state legislature can make laws for the carrying on by the respective trade, business, industry or service, whether to complete or partial, of citizens or 2 is correct: The legislature of a state can restrictions the freedom trade, commerce with that state or within that state in But, a bill for this purpose can be the legislature only with the previous sanction of 1 Parliament can give state over another or discriminate between the in the case of scarcity of goods in any part of Legislature cannot give preference to one state or discriminate between the states. Important Tips Arlidi: 301 uf Lhi: Indian Cunslituliun: Article 301 declares that trade, commerce and intercour
#216Practice set
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the ground for judicial review in India?
- AIf it infringes the Fundamental Rights
- BIf it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it
- CIf it is repugnant to the constitutional provisions
- DIfit fails to implement Directive Principles of State Policy on time
Answer: (B) If it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it
Explanation
Option b is the correct 1 is correct. In the Parliamentary in India, members of the cabinet have to be of the Parliament. If they are not members of at the time of appointment as cabinet they have to become a member within 6 months. Statement 2 is correct. According to Article 75 (3) of the ministers shall be collectively the house of people i.e., Lok Sabha. If a vote of is passed in parliament, the entire due to the collective responsibility of the 3 is incorrect. In Parliamentary government the cabinet is headed by the Prime Minister who head of the Head of the State is the President
#217Practice set
Consider the following circumstances: 1. If the Chief Justice of India is unable to perform the duties of his/her office due to absence. 2. When both the houses of the.Parliament passed a resolution demanding initiation of impeachment motion against the Chief Justice of India. G 3. If the deadlock between Government and Collegium over the appointment of Chief Justice of India persists for more than six months. Inhow many of the above circumstances does the Constitution empowered the President of India to appoint "acting Chief Justice of India?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Answer: (A) Only one
Explanation
Option a is the correct 126 of the Constitution of India deals with to appointment of acting Chief Justice of India related to l is correct: Article 126 empowers the India to appoint acting Chief Justice of India, if the of India is unable to perform the duties of office because of absence or otherwise. Further can appoint acting chief justice if the office Justice of India is 2 is incorrect: The constitution provides provision for appointment of acting Chief Justice (CJI) when Parliament passes a resolution motion against 3 is incorrect: The constitution provides no to appoint acting CJI i.e., if the deadlock and Collegium over the appointment of of India persists for more than six months, Important Tips Additional Judge of a High Court: Additional Judges can be appointed by the President under clause (1) of Article 224 of the Constitution. The President appoint duly qualified persons a
#218Practice set
With reference to quasi-judicial bodies in India, which of the statements given below is correct? 1. They all are established by an act of parliament. 2. They have powers to impose law on administrative agencies. 3. Securities and Exchange Board of India is a quasi-judicial regulatory body.Select the correct answer using the code given below
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D2 and 3 only
Answer: (D) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Option d is the correct l is incorrect. Quasi-judicial bodies can regulatory or constitutional in nature. For National Human Rights Commission is a statutory Finance Commission is a constitutional body Article 2 is correct. Quasi-Judicial bodies are have power similar to law imposing bodies but not courts. The courts have the power to supervise types of disputes but the quasi-judicial bodies are the the powers of imposing law on administrative 3 is correct. Securities and Exchange Board is quasi-judicial regulatory body. Its main function ensure transparency in the market economy. It also measures e.g. punishing in case of violation of fines and IRDA are also quasi-judicial regulatory bodies
#219Practice set
Consider the following statements with reference to Tribunals in India: 1. The original Constitution did not contain provisions with respect to tribunals. 2. A tribunal for the adjudication of tax related disputes can be established only by Parliament. 3. Article of the Constitution provides for the establishment of administrative tribunals in India.How many of the above given statements are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Answer: (A) Only one
Explanation
Option a is the correct are established for discharging quasi-judicial duties. The objective is to reduce case the judiciary or to bring in subject expertise for I. is correct: The original Constitution did provisions with respect to trilnmals. The Act of 1976 added a new Ptut XIY.-A the tribmrnls) to the 2 is incorrect: Vndier Ax-tick 323 and state legislatures are provide for the establishment of tdlnmals for of disputes relating to the following matters: Foreign exchange, impori and cxpor, Industrial and labour I.and reforms Ceiling on urban property Elections to Parliarnent and state legislatures Food stuffs Rent and tenancy 3 is Artlde 323 A Parliament to provide for the establishment tribunals for the adjudication of to recruitment and conditions of service of to certain specified public services. Important Significance olf Tribunals Flexibility in procedures They arc not restraine
#220Practice set
Consider the following statements with reference to the difference between Article and Article of Indian Constitution: 1. Article contemplates establishment of tribunals for public service matters only, while Article contemplates establishment of tribunals for certain other matters also. 1 2. Tribunals under Article can be established only by Parliament, whereas tribunals under Article can be established both by Parliament and state legislatures. 3. There is a hierarchy of tribunals under Article whereas no hierarchy of tribunals can be created under ArticleHow many of the above given statements are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation
Option b is the correct 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part the Constitution. This part is entitled 'Tribunals' of only two Articles-Article 323 A and Article l is correct: Article of tribunals for public service matters 323 B contemplates establishment of tribunals other matters such as (Taxation (Foreign and export (Industrial and labour (Land reforms, 2 is correct: Tribunals under Article 323 A established only by the Parliament; tribunals 323 B can be established both by Parliament legislatures with respect to matters falling within 3 is incorrect: Under Article only for the Centre and one for each state or two or more states may be established. There is no question of tdbunals Article whereas a hierarchy of tribunals may be created. there is hierarchy in form of appellate tribunal tribunals such as Income Tax Appellate and Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) etc
#221Practice set
Consider the following pairs:Type of Veto Explanation 1. Absolute Veto President withholds his assent to a bill 2. Suspensive Only a higher majority Veto of Parliament can override this Veto power 3. Qualified Veto Power to reject the bill altogether 4. Pocket Veto The President does not act upon the billHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- COnly three
- DAll four
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation
Option bis the correct President's veto power refers to the President's the bill's l is correct. Absolute Veto is the power of the withhold the assent to the 2 is incorrect. Under the Suspensive Veto, the back the bill to the parliament for reconsideration. veto can be overridden by simple majority of If the Parliament resends the bill with or to the Indian President, he must approve the 3 is incorrect. The Qualified Veto is the power to withhold the assent but it can be overridden legislature with a higher majority. This type of veto used by the President of 4 is correct. Power of the President to not act upon is termed as a pocket veto. Constitution does not give to President within which he has to act upon Therefore, the President uses his pocket veto where have to act upon the bill. Important Tips It is obligatory for the Governor of a state to reserve a bill of state legislature to
#222Practice set
The President cannot use the Suspensive Veto in case of which of the following types of bills? 1. When the bill is sent back to the Parliament by the President and the same is passed again by Parliament, with or without changes, and presented again to the President. 2. When the bill presented to President is a Money Bill. 3. When a Constitutional Amendment Bill comes to the President for his consideration. 4. When state ordinary bills are reserved for the President's consideration.Select the correct answer using the code given below
- A1, 2 and 3 only
- B1, 2 and 4 only
- C1, 3 and 4 only
- D1 and 2 only
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Option a is the correct Veto means the power of the President to bill for reconsideration of the l is correct: When the bill is sent back to by the President and if the same is passed Parliament, with or without changes, and presented the President, the President is required to grant his the bill. Hence is such case the President cannot use veto. Statement 2 is correct: In the case of money bills, does not have a suspensive veto. The President grant or withhold his approval to a money he may not return it to Parliament for 3 is correct: The president does have any use suspensive veto in case of "the 4 is incorrect: The President enjoys the with respect to the state if the bill is passed again by legislature with or without amendments and to the President for his assent, the President is to give his assent to the bill. This means that the cannot override the suspensive veto power of
#223Practice set
Consider the following statements regarding ordinance making power of the President of India: 1. The ordinance issued by President cannot have a retrospective effect. 2. The President can issue an ordinance even when only one house of Parliament is not in session.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
Option b is the correct l is incorrect: An ordinance issued by be retrospective like any other legislation. It means come into force from a backdate. Hence the 2 is correct: The Presidents can ordinance when both the houses of parliament are session and even when there is only one house is session as the laws in parliament can be passed by of parliament and not by just one house. Important Tips Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament. These ordinances have the same force and effect as an act of Parliament but are temporary laws. He can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session or when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session
#224Practice set
Consider the following statements with reference to the of Lht:President; 1. Members of both the houses of Parliament takes part in the investigation of the charges. 2. Impeachment resolution needs to be passed by 2/3rd of members presents and voting. 3. Nominated members of the Rajya Sabha can participate in the irnpeachment. 4. Impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament.How many statements given above are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- COnly three
- DAll four
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation
Option b is the correct President can be removed from office by a process for 'violation of l and 2 are incorrect. The impeachment be initiated by either House ot Parliament. Atter resolution is passed by a majority of two thirds of the total membership of that House, it is sent other House, which should investigate the 3 is correct. The nominated members of of Parliament can participate in the impeachment President though they do not participate in his 4 is correct. An impeachment is a quasi in the Parliament
#225Practice set
Regarding the AU-India Services, which one of the following statements is incorrect?
- AThe Central government obtains the services of officers under tenure system
- BRajya Sabha has the power to authorize the Parliament to create new All-India Services
- CThe salaries and pensions of these officers are met only by the states
- DThese services are controlled exclusively by the Central government
Answer: (D) These services are controlled exclusively by the Central government
Explanation
Option d is the correct d is incorrect. The all-India services jointly by the Central and state ultimate control lies with the Central government immediate control is vested in the state disciplinary action (imposition of penalties) officers can only be taken by the Central government. Important AH-India Services Act of 1951 authorised the to make rules in consultation with the for the regulation of recruitment and of the members of all-India services. The members uf vices alt: trained by the Union government but are assigned to different states for work. They serve the Central government on deputation under the well-known tenure system and after completing their fixed tenure they go back to their respective states. Under Article 312 of the Constitution, Rajya Sabha can authorise the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both the Centre and states. Irrespective of their d
#226Practice set
Which of the following is not a Constitutional prerogative of the President of India?
- AReturning a Legislative Bill for reconsideration
- BReturning of Appropriation Bill for reconsideration
- CDissolving the Lok Sabha
- DSummoning the Rajya Sabha
Answer: (D) Summoning the Rajya Sabha
Explanation
Option d is the correct 131 of the constitution of India deals with jurisdiction of the Supreme l is incorrect: Exclusive Original jurisdiction Original Jurisdiction) of the Supreme Court does to a dispute arising out of any or agreement. In fact, disputes arising out of pre constitution treaties belong to an advisory 143) of the Supreme 2 is correct: It is true that a dispute between more states is the exclusive original jurisdiction Supreme court, which means that such cases cannot by the High 3 is correct: A dispute between centre and on any matter comes under the exclusive of the Supreme 4 is incorrect: Original jurisdiction of the does not extend to cover matters referred to Commission. The Finance Commissions by the President of India under Article 280 Indian Constitution to define the financial the Centre and state governments
#227Practice set
If X has attained the age years in India, then he/she is eligible to be elected as: 1. Prime Minister of India 2. Vice-President of India 3. Member of Rajya Sabha 4. Governor of a State 5. Speaker of the Lok SabhaSelect the correct answer using the code given below
- A1, 3 and 5 only
- B1, 3 and 4 only
- C2, 3 and 5 only
- D1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (A) 1, 3 and 5 only
Explanation
Option a is the correct X has attained the age of 32 years in India, then he/she to be elected Member of Lok sabha - Minimum age required is 25 Prime Minister of India - Minimum age required is Years. Hence, Option 1 is Member of Rajya Sabha - Minimum age required is 30 Years. Hence, Option 3 is 4) Speaker of the Lok Sabha - Minimum age required is 25 Years. Hence, Option 5 is 2 and 4 are incorrect as for Vice President of a state minimum age required is
#228Practice set
With to the impeachment of the the following statements: 1. The impeachment charges against the President can be initiated by either House of the Parliament. 2. The impeachment of the President is quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament. 3. Nominated members of either House of Parliament participate in the impeachment process.How many statements given above are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Answer: (D) None
Explanation
Option d is the correct active and vigilant Parliament can keep regular check on the executive through many l is correct. The power and freedom of as people's representatives to work fearlessly is one the basic ways to keep control on The constitution provides for the freedom to the members of Parliament inside the house. known as parliamentary privilege. The main purpose privileges is to enable the members of the represent the people and exercise effective control 2 is correct. The Question Hour, which is day during the sessions of Parliament, where to respond to questions raised by the members is effective method of keeping vigil on the the administrative agencies of the government. the questions aim at eliciting information from on issues of public interest such as, price of food grains, atrocities on weaker the society, riots, black-marketing, etc. This gives an opportunity to critic
#229Practice set
Which of the following rights are covered under the Rights of Ministers as 'Respects the Houses?' 1. Right to speak in either House. 2. Right to take part in the proceedings of either House. 3. Right to take part in any Committee of Parliament of which he may or may not be named a member. 4. Right to vote in either House of Parliament.Select the correct answer using the code given below
- A1 only
- B1 and 2 only
- C2 and 3 only
- D3 and 4 only
Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Option b is the correct 88 of the Tnrlian Constitution provides for the Ministers as Respects the I is correct: Every minister shall have the speak in and to take part in the proceedings of any joint sitting of the 2 is correct: Every minister shall havr the right part in the proceedings of either House. Every have the right to take part in the proceedings of sitting of the 3 is incorrect: Every minister shall have to take part in the proceedings of any Committee of which he may be named a member. If he a member of the Parliamentary Committee, he part in its 4 is incorrect: A minister who is a member of of Parliament has the right to speak and to take the proceedings of the other House also, but he can in the House of which he is a member. G
#230Practice set
With reference to the appointment of ministers of the State, consider the following statements: 1. The ministers are appointed by Governor only on the advice of Chief Minister. 2. The nominated members of state legislatures cannot be appointed as the minister. 3. The Governor can dismiss an individual Minister from a State Council of Ministers on his/her discretion.How many of the above given statements are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Answer: (D) None
Explanation
Option d is the correct l is incorrect. Responsible government is one features of Parliamentary system of government ministers are responsible to the Parliament for all But this does not guarantee a stable government. A motion can be passed to remove the thus government does not have the security of 2 is incorrect. The Indian Parliament is not body like the British Parliament. In India, are 3 is correct. Membership of the ministers legislature is also a feature of the Indian They are collectively responsible to the Lok 4 is correct. Majority party rule is a feature parliamentary system. The political homogeneity when council of ministers belong to same in case of coalition government, it is maintained are bound by 5 is correct. The lower house can be its expiry by President on the Prime minister. Thus, dissolution of lower house executive is the feature of Parliamentary form Option c is
#231Practice set
Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitutional provisions for public acts, records and judicial proceedings:l. 'Public acts' includes both legislative and executive acts of the government. 2. It requires the courts of a state to enforce the penal laws of another state. 3. Parliament has the power to determine the mode of proof of public records of one state in another state.How many statements given above are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone 13 I
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation
Option b is the correct the Constitution, full faith and credit is to be the territory of India to public acts, judicial proceedings of the Centre and every l is correct. The expression 'public acts' legislative and executive acts of the government. 'public record' includes any official book, record made by a public servant in the discharge of 2 is incorrect. Final judgements and orders of in any part of India are capable of execution India (without the necessity of a fresh suit upon The rule applies only to civil judgements to criminal judgements. In other words, it does the courts of a state to enforce the penal laws 3 is correct. The manner in which and under which such acts, records and to be proved and their effect determined would be by the laws of Parliament. This means that rule mentioned above is subject to the power to lay down the mode of proof as well as of such acts, records
#232Practice set
With respect to Governor's power of reserving a bill for President's consideration, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Governor can reserve any bill including the money bill for the assent of President. 2. Once a bill is reserved for assent of President, the executive role of Governor on that bill ends. 3. It is obligatory for Governor to reserve a bill for the President's consideration if the bill is opposed to any of the Directive Principles of State Policy.Select the correct answer using the code given below
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Option a is the correct l is correct. Governor in any case, be it money ordinary bill can reserve it for the assent of 2 is correct. When the governor reserves a the consideration of the President, he will not further role in the enactment of the bill. If the bill by the President for the reconsideration of the Houses and is passed again, the bill must be for the presidential assent only. If the President assent to the bill, it becomes an act. This means that of the Governor is no longer 3 is incorrect. Article 200 of the it is obligatory for Governor to reserve the bill consideration if it endangers the position of the governor may reserve the bill if it opposed to DPSPs, against larger country, of grave national importance, dealing acquisition of property. He/She is not obligation in the above cases and can follow
#233Practice set
A member uses this device when the proceedings of the House do not follow the normal rules of procedure. It should relate to the interpretation or enforcement of the Rules of the House or such articles of the Constitution that regulate the business of the House and should raise a question that is within the cognizance of the Speaker. Which one of the following parliamentary instruments is correctly described in the above paragraph?
- ACensure Motion
- BPoint of Order
- CNo-Confidence Motion
- DSpecial Mention
Answer: (B) Point of Order
Explanation
Option b is the correct b is correct. A member can raise a point of the proceedings of the House do not follow ruies of procedure. A point of order should the interpretation or enforcement of the Rules of or such articles of the Constitution that regulate of the House and should raise a question that the cognizance of the Speaker. It is usually raised opposition member in order to control the is an extraordinary device as it suspends the the House. No debate is allowed on a point of order
#234Practice set
In the context of Individual Privileges enjoyed by the Members of Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. They cannot be arrested in civil or criminal cases during the session of Parliament. 2. MPs can refuse to appear as a witness in a court case when Parliament is in session. 3. An MP cannot be held liable in any court for anything said by him in a Parliamentary committeeHow many statements given above are correct?
- AOnly One
- BOnly Two
- CAll Three
- DNone
Answer: (C) All Three
Explanation
Option c is the correct Rights can be suspended during the a National Emergency except the rights guaranteed 20 and 21. Further, the six rights Article 19 can be suspended only when emergency on the grounds of war or external external emergency) and not on the ground of (i.e., internal a is incorrect. Their application to the members forces, paramilitary forces, police forces, and analogous services can be restricted by the Parliament (Article b is incorrect. Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Supreme Court. Hence, the can directly go to the Supreme Court, not way of appeal against the judgement of the high d is incorrect. Most of Fundamental Rights enforceable (self-executory) while a few of be enforced on the basis of a law made for giving them. Such a law can be made only by the Parliament by state legislatures so that uniformity throughout is maintained (Article 35)
#235Practice set
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the merits of Parliamentary systern?
- AIt establishes a responsible government
- BIt provides a platform that is representative of diverse groups
- CIt provides a strict separation of power between the executive and legislature
- DIt provides flexibility in the removal of the head of the government
Answer: (C) It provides a strict separation of power between the executive and legislature
Explanation
Option c is the correct a is incorrect. Periodical election is a democracy and not of the parliamentary means a rule a responsible form uf is elected by the b is incorrect. In India, the President is the the state. This status to him is granted by the of India (and not by the collective responsibility c is correct. Collective responsibility means are responsible to the Parliament in to the Lok Sabha in particular as per Article implies that ministers can be removed from by passing a vote of no confidence
#236Practice set
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Money Bill in India? 1. The President is the final authority to certify a Bill as a Money Bill. 2. A Constitution Amendment Bill can also be treated as a Money Bill.Select the correct answer using the code below
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Option d is the correct 1 is incorrect. If any question arises whether is a Money Bill or not, the decision of Speaker thereon The Speaker is under no obligation to consult any coming to a decision or in giving certificate that a Bill Money 2 is incorrect. A Constitution is not treated as a Money Bill even if all its article 11 0( 1) for the reason that such governed by article 368 which over-rides the Money money bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha too on the recommendation of the president
#237Practice set
Consider the following statements about the privileges of the parliament: 1. The courts are prohibited to inquire into the proceedings of a House or its committees. 2. President, who is an integral part of the Parliament, also enjoys these privileges.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Option a is the correct privileges are special rights, immunities enjoyed by the two Houses of Parliament, and their l is correct. The privileges belonging to of Parliament collectively includes prohibition to inquire into the proceedings of a House or 2 is incorrect. The Constitution has also parliamentary privileges to those persons who to speak and take part in the proceedings of a Parliament or any of its committees. These include general of India and Union ministers. Though, be clarified here that the parliamentary privileges extend to the president who is also an integral part are some privileges belonging to the like; they cannot be arrested during the Parliament and 40 days before the beginning and 40 the end of a session. This privilege is available only cases and not in criminal cases or preventive
#238Practice set
In which of the following matters does Rajya Sabha has unequal status with the Lok Sabha? l. Approving the discontinuance of the National Emergency. 2. Introduction of Adjournment motion. 3. Use of Censure motion. 4. Vote on the Demands for Grants.Select the correct answer using the code given below
- A1, 2 and 3 only
- B1 and 4 only
- C2, 3 and 4 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Option d is the correct 1 is correct. A resolution for the the national emergency can be passed only by the and not by the Rajya 2 is correct. Adjournment motion can only in Lok Sabha and not the Rajya Sabha. It element of censure against the government and Sabha is not permitted to make use of this 3 is correct. Censure Motion can be in Lok Sabha and not the Rajya Sabha. As it is moved the council of ministers for specific policies 4 is con-ect. Rajya Sabha can only discuss but cannot vote on the demands for grants (which exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha)
#239Practice set
With reference to Public Accounts of India, consider the following statements: 1. The expenditures from the Public Account are not required to be approved by the Parliament. 2. The funds under the Public Account does not belong to the Government.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Option c is the correct public money (other than those which are credited to Fund of India) received by or on behalf of of India shall be credited to the Public India. Ex: provident fund l is correct. The Public Account of India by executive action, that is, the payments from can be made without parliamentary 2 is correct. Public Account of India flows for those transactions where the government acting as a banker. Such payments are mostly in of banking transactions. These funds do not the government. They have to be paid back at some their rightful owners. Because of this nature of the from it are not required to be approved by
#240Practice set
Consider the following statements, with reference to the Parliamentary procedures: 1. Adjournment only terminates a sitting and not a session of the House. 2. All pending bills lapse on prorogation of the House. 3. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved all businesses pending before its committees' lapses.How many statements given above are correct?
- AOnly One
- BOnly Two
- CAll Three
- DNone
Answer: (A) Only One
Explanation
Option a is the correct l is correct. An adjournment suspends the a sitting of the House for a specified time, which may days or weeks. It only terminates a sitting and not of the 2 is incorrect. Prorogation of the House affect the bills or any other business pending House. However, all pending notices (other than introducing lapse on prorngation fresh to be given for the next 3 is incorrect. When the Lok Sabha is business including bills, motions, resolutions, and so on pending before it or its However, some pending bills and all that are to be examined by the Committee Assurances do not lapse on the dissolution Lok Sabha

Parliament — UPSC Prelims Polity previous year questions — page 6

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