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Federalism & Centre-State — UPSC Prelims Polity previous year questions
20 free solved previous year questions on Federalism & Centre-State, papers from 2003 to 2025, drawn from UPSC CSE Prelims, State PCS, UPSC CAPF, covering statement-based, direct, match and assertion questions. Every answer key has been checked again against published sources and solved independently, and each explanation is written fresh.
Read all 20 questions with answers
- #1UPSC CSE 2025Consider the following pairs:State – DescriptionI. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks.II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act.III. Tripura : Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll the three
- DNone
Answer: (C) All the threeExplanation
All three pairs are correctly matched.
Pair I is correct. Itanagar is named after Ita Fort. Arunachal Pradesh has two national parks, Namdapha and Mouling.
Pair II is correct. Nagaland became a State through the 13th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962.
Pair III is correct. Tripura was a Part C State. It became a Union Territory in 1956 and a full State in 1972.
So the answer is all three.
Remember: Meghalaya, Manipur and Tripura became States in 1972.Source: Constitution of India, Art. 3 and 13th Amendment Act, 1962; State Reorganisation history (NCERT Class XII Politics in India since Independence)
- #2UPSC CSE 2025With reference to India, consider the following:I. The Inter-State CouncilII. The National Security CouncilIII. Zonal CouncilsHow many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll the three
- DNone
Answer: (A) Only oneExplanation
Only the Inter-State Council was set up under the Constitution.
The Inter-State Council is provided for in Article 263. The President set it up in 1990.
The National Security Council is an executive body created in 1998. The Constitution does not mention it.
Zonal Councils are statutory bodies. They were created by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
So only one is correct.
Remember: Article 263 lets the President set up a council to coordinate Centre-State matters.Source: Constitution of India, Art. 263; States Reorganisation Act, 1956
- #3UPSC CSE 2025Consider the following statements:I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- AI only
- BII only
- CBoth I and II
- DNeither I nor II
Answer: (A) I onlyExplanation
Statement I is correct. The Constitution itself names matters where the Governor acts in his own discretion. Article 163(2) and the Sixth Schedule are examples.
Statement II is incorrect. Only the Governor can reserve a State bill for the President under Article 200. The President cannot do this on his own.
So only Statement I is correct.
Remember: Under Article 201, the President can withhold assent to a reserved bill or ask the Governor to return it.Source: Constitution of India, Arts. 163, 200 and 201; Sixth Schedule
- #4UPSC CSE 2025Consider the following statements:Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
- BBoth Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
- CStatement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
- DStatement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Answer: (D) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correctExplanation
Statement I is incorrect. Under Section 15 of the MMDR Act, 1957, State Governments make rules for concessions on minor minerals found in their territories.
Statement II is correct. Under Section 3(e), the Central Government notifies which minerals are minor minerals.
So only Statement II is correct. Option (d) fits.
Remember: Major minerals are mainly regulated by the Centre. Minor minerals, like sand and building stone, are regulated by States.Source: Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, Sections 3(e) and 15
- #5UPSC CSE 2024The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?1. Governor of the Constituent State2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India4. The Home Minister of IndiaSelect the correct answer using the code given below:
- A1, 2 and 3 only
- B1, 3 and 4 only
- C2 and 4 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 onlyExplanation
After the 2002 amendment, the NEC includes the Governors and Chief Ministers of the constituent states. These are Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura and Sikkim. It also includes three members nominated by the President.
The Home Minister is not a member. Before 2002 the Union Home Minister was the Chairman. Now the Union Minister for Development of North Eastern Region is the ex-officio Chairman.
So only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Remember: NEC acts as an advisory body for the economic and social development of the North-East.Source: North Eastern Council Act, 1971 (as amended in 2002); Ministry of DoNER
- #6UPSC CSE 2024Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
- AInter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
- BInter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
- CInter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
- DCorporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
Answer: (C) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.Explanation
Entry 81 of the Union List covers inter-State migration and inter-State quarantine. So inter-State quarantine is a Union subject.
Inter-State trade and commerce is Entry 42 of the Union List, not the State List. Inter-State migration is also in the Union List. Corporation tax is Entry 85 of the Union List.
So only option (c) is correct.
Remember: the Seventh Schedule has three lists: Union, State and Concurrent.Source: Constitution of India, Seventh Schedule, Union List (Entries 42, 81 and 85)
- #7UPSC CSE 2023Consider the following statements:1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.How many of the above statements are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Answer: (B) Only twoExplanation
Statement 1 is correct. Article 355 makes it the Union's duty to protect every State against internal disturbance.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 22(3)(b) says the right to consult a legal practitioner does not apply to persons under preventive detention.
Statement 3 is incorrect. POTA 2002 made a confession before a senior police officer admissible as evidence, with safeguards.
Remember: POTA was repealed in 2004.Source: Constitution of India, Arts. 22 and 355; Prevention of Terrorism Act 2002, s. 32
- #8UPSC CSE 2021Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
- AThe independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
- BThe Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
- CThe Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
- DThe Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.
Answer: (A) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.Explanation
In a federation, an independent judiciary settles disputes between the Centre and the states.
The Supreme Court has this role under Article 131, so judicial independence is an essential federal feature.
Elected representatives of units in the legislature or the cabinet are found in unitary systems too.
Enforceability of Fundamental Rights concerns individual rights, not federalism.
Remember: a federation needs a written constitution, division of powers and an independent judiciary.Source: Constitution of India, Art. 131; M. Laxmikanth, Indian Polity (federal features)
- #9UPSC CSE 2019Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
- AFirst Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
- BRajamannar Committee (1969)
- CSarkaria Commission (1983)
- DNational Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Answer: (C) Sarkaria Commission (1983)Explanation
The Sarkaria Commission (1983) on Centre-State relations made these recommendations on the Governor.
It said the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the state.
He should be a detached figure and not have taken part in politics in the recent past.
The Rajamannar Committee wanted more state autonomy and Governors chosen in consultation with the state. The NCRWC (2000) had separate suggestions.
Remember: Sarkaria also said the Governor's term should not be cut short without cause.Source: Report of the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations (1988)
- #10UPSC CSE 2018Consider the following statements:1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2Explanation
Statement 1 is correct. Article 361(2) bars criminal proceedings against the Governor while in office.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 158(4) says the Governor's emoluments and allowances shall not be diminished during his term.
Remember: Civil proceedings need two months' prior notice under Article 361(4).Source: Constitution of India, Arts. 158(4) and 361
- #11UPSC CSE 2016The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the
- ALok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership.
- BLok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership.
- CRajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership.
- DRajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting.
Answer: (D) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting.Explanation
Article 249 lets Parliament legislate on a State List subject in the national interest.
The Rajya Sabha must pass a resolution supported by at least two-thirds of members present and voting.
The resolution is valid for up to one year and can be renewed.
Lok Sabha has no role in passing this resolution.
Laws made lapse six months after the resolution ceases.
Remember: Rajya Sabha, as the House of the states, is given this power.Source: Constitution of India, Art. 249
- #12UPSC CSE 2016 · key correctedConsider the following statements:1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Chief Minister selects the Chief Secretary. The Governor's name appears only in the formal order.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Chief Secretary has no fixed tenure under the Constitution or rules. He serves as long as the State Government wishes.
Remember: The Chief Secretary is head of the State civil service and secretary to the State Cabinet.Source: Constitution of India, Art. 164; All India Services rules
- #13UPSC CSE 2014Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President's rule2. Appointing the Ministers3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State GovernmentSelect the correct answer using the code given below:
- A1 and 2 only
- B1 and 3 only
- C2, 3 and 4 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (B) 1 and 3 onlyExplanation
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Governor uses his own judgment in reporting under Article 356 and in reserving certain Bills under Article 200.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Ministers are appointed on the Chief Minister's advice. Statement 4 is incorrect. Rules of business are made on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Remember: Choosing a Chief Minister in a hung House is also a discretionary act.Source: Constitution of India, Arts. 163, 200, 356
- #14UPSC CSE 2003 · key correctedConsider the following statements:In India, stamp duties on financial transactions are1. levied and collected by the State Government.2. appropriated by the Union Government.Which of these statements is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2Explanation
Under Article 268, stamp duties on financial instruments (Union List Entry 91: bills of exchange, cheques, shares and similar) are levied by the Union.
The States collect them and keep the proceeds.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The levy belongs to the Union, not the State.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The States appropriate the money, not the Union.
Remember: Art. 268 duties are levied by the Union but collected and kept by the States.Source: Constitution of India, Art. 268; Seventh Schedule, Union List Entry 91; question text
- #15UPSC CAPF 2019Which of the following pairs of list and contents is/are correctly matched?1. State List: Public health and sanitation2. Union List: Citizenship, naturalization and aliens3. Concurrent List: Legal, medical and other professions
- A1 only
- B1, 2 and 3
- C2 and 3 only
- D3 only
Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3Explanation
Pair 1 is correct. Public health and sanitation is Entry 6 of the State List.
Pair 2 is correct. Citizenship, naturalisation and aliens is Entry 17 of the Union List.
Pair 3 is correct. Legal, medical and other professions is Entry 26 of the Concurrent List.
So all three pairs are correct.
Remember: Education was moved from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment.Source: Constitution of India, Seventh Schedule
- #16UPSC CAPF 2019 · key correctedWhich of the following pairs of list and contents is/are correctly matched?1. State List: Public health and sanitation2. Union List: Citizenship, naturalization and aliens3. Concurrent List: Legal, medical and other professionsSelect the correct answer using the code given below:
- A1 only
- B1, 2 and 3
- C2 and 3 only
- D3 only
Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3Explanation
Pair 1 is correct. Public health and sanitation is Entry 6 of the State List.
Pair 2 is correct. Citizenship, naturalisation and aliens is Entry 17 of the Union List.
Pair 3 is correct. Legal, medical and other professions is Entry 26 of the Concurrent List.
All three are correctly matched.
Remember: Education was moved from the State List to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment.Source: Constitution of India, Seventh Schedule
- #17UPPCS 2020 (Pre)Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):Assertion (A): Indian federalism is called 'Quasi-federal'.Reason (R): India has an independent judiciary with power of Judicial Review.Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
- ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- BBoth (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- C(A) is true but (R) is false.
- D(A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).Explanation
Assertion A is true. K.C. Wheare called India 'quasi-federal' because of its strong Centre.
Reason R is also true. India has an independent judiciary with judicial review.
But judicial review is a federal feature. It does not explain why India is called quasi-federal.
The Centre's strong powers, such as Article 356 and residuary powers, explain the term.
Remember: the Supreme Court called India federal in basic structure terms (S.R. Bommai, 1994).Source: K.C. Wheare, Federal Government; Constitution of India
- #18UPPCS 2019Which of the following is not correctly matched?
- APublic Health and Sanitation - State List
- BCensus - Union List
- CAllocation of seats in the Council of States - Second Schedule
- DAnti-Defection - Tenth Schedule
Answer: (C) Allocation of seats in the Council of States - Second ScheduleExplanation
Allocation of seats in the Council of States is in the Fourth Schedule, not the Second. So this pair is wrong.
Public health and sanitation is Entry 6 of the State List. This pair is correct.
Census is Entry 69 of the Union List. This pair is correct.
Anti-defection law is in the Tenth Schedule. This pair is correct.
The Second Schedule deals with salaries of the President, Governors, judges and others.
Remember: Fourth Schedule is for Rajya Sabha seats.Source: Constitution of India, Second, Fourth, Seventh and Tenth Schedules
- #19RAS/RTS 2013 (Re-Exam)Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).Assertion (A): Sarkaria Commission recommended that Article 356 should be sparingly used.Reason (R): The political parties that came to form the Government at the Centre misused Article 356.Code:
- A(R) is true, but (A) is false.
- BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- CBoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- D(A) is true, but (R) is false.
Answer: (C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).Explanation
Assertion (A) is true. The Sarkaria Commission said Article 356 should be used only as a last resort, after all other options fail.
Reason (R) is true. Article 356 was misused many times by Union governments to dismiss State governments of rival parties.
This misuse is the reason the Commission advised caution. So (R) explains (A).
The Supreme Court in S.R. Bommai (1994) also made such misuse reviewable.
Remember: Sarkaria: Article 356 only as a last resort.Source: Sarkaria Commission Report 1988; S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)
- #20UPPCS 2004Match the following:List-IA. Union ListB. State ListC. Concurrent ListD. Residuary SubjectList-II1. Police and Public Order2. Space Research3. Census4. Population Control and Family PlanningCode:A B C D
- A3 1 4 2
- B2 3 1 4
- C1 2 3 4
- D4 1 2 3
Answer: (A) 3 1 4 2Explanation
Census is entry 69 of the Union List, so A matches 3.
Police and public order are in the State List, so B matches 1.
Population control and family planning is entry 20A of the Concurrent List, so C matches 4.
Space research is not named in any of the three Lists. It falls under residuary powers, so D matches 2.
The code is 3 1 4 2.
Remember: Article 248 gives residuary powers to Parliament.Source: Constitution of India, Seventh Schedule; Art. 248
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