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Citizenship & Schedules — UPSC Prelims Polity previous year questions

82 solved previous year questions on Citizenship & Schedules, papers from 1991 to 2023, drawn from UPPCS, UPSC CSE Prelims, UPSC CDS. Each carries the printed answer key and the explanation from the source compilation.

1. #1UPSC CSE Prelims 2015
   The provisions of the fifth and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made to
   • AProtect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
   • BDetermine the boundaries between States
   • CDetermine the powers, authority and responsible of Panchayats
   • DProtect the interests of all the border States
   Answer: (A) Protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
   Explanation

   Option a is the correct the Fifth Schedule and the Sixth Schedule protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes. The of the Constitution of India contains for the administration and control of in several states. Scheduled Areas are those areas substantial number of Scheduled Tribes (STs) reside. Schedule of the Constitution of India contains for the administration of tribal areas in states

2. #2UPSC CSE Prelims 2014
   Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?
   • ASecond Schedule
   • BFifth Schedule
   • CEighth Schedule
   • DTenth Schedule
   Answer: (D) Tenth Schedule
   Explanation

   Option dis the correct Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution to as the 'Anti-Defection Law' was inserted 52nd Amendment (1985) to the Constitution. It to bring stability in the Indian political system

3. #3UPSC CSE Prelims 2012
   Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education? 1. Directive Principles of State Policy. 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies. 3. Fifth Schedule 4. Sixth Schedule 5. Seventh Schedule RNANCESelect the correct answer using the codes given below
   • A1 and 2 only
   • B3, 4 and 5 only
   • C1, 2 and 5 only
   • D1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
   Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
   Explanation

   Option d is the correct the above provisions of the Constitution of India, have on Principles of State Policy - Article 45: To childhood care and education for all children complete the age of six years. 86th Amendment subject-matter of Article 45 and made a fundamental right under Article 21 and Urban Local Bodies - Education is one of matters under Schedules XI and XII. It bodies to take steps to improve educational their and Sixth Schedule - The Fifth and Sixth Schedule constitution provide protection to the tribals on their economic disadvantages so that they could tribal identity without any coercion or exploitation. promotion of education in their own language for Schedule - Under this, education is put under list which allows both centre and states to on the subject

4. #4UPSC CSE Prelims 2001
   If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution must be amended?
   • AFirst
   • BSecond
   • CThird
   • DFourth
   Answer: (A) First
   Explanation

   Option a is the change or creation of a new state would require First Schedule to reflect the addition or alteration in The First Schedule contains the list of states and with their territories and capitals. Articles 1 are covered in the first schedule. Important Tips

5. #5UPPCS 2019
   Which of the following is not correctly matched?
   • APublic Health State List and Sanitation
   • BCensus Union List
   • CAllocation of Second Schedule seats in the council of States
   • DAnti- Tenth Schedule Defection
   Answer: (C) Allocation of Second Schedule seats in the council of States
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct Second Schedule of the Constitution of India related to emoluments, allowances, so on as to the President, Vice--President, and Deputy Speakers of Legislatures and the Supreme Court and High Courts. The allocation in the Council of States or the Rajya Sabha is listed Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India

6. #6UPPCS 2017
   Which of the following are enshrined in the third schedule of the Indian Constitution? 1. Form of oath of office for a Minister for the Union. 2. Form of oath to be made by the Chief Justice of Supreme Court. 3. Form of oath of office for the President of India. 4. Form of oath to be made by a Member of Parliament.Select the correct answer using the code given below
   • A1, 2 and 3 only
   • B2, 3 and 4 only
   • C1, 2 and 4 only
   • D1, 2, 3 and 4
   Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct l is correct- Form of oath of office for a the Union is included in the third schedule. It outlines that a Minister for the Union must take upon 2 is correct-- Form of oath to be made by the of Supreme Court is included in the third schedule. the oath that the of the Supreme India takes while entering 3 is incorrect- The oath of office for the India is mentioned separately in Article 60 of 4 is correct- Forrn of oath to be made by a Parliament is included in the third schedule. It oath that Members of Parliament must take when their positions

7. #7UPPCS 2017
   A citizen of India will loose his or her citizenship if he or she renounces Indian citizenship. 2. voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country. 3. marries a citizen of another country. 4. criticizes the government. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
   • A1, 2 and 3 only
   • B2, 3 and 4 only
   • C1 and 2 only
   • D1 and 4 only
   Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct l is correct- Any adult citizen of India their citizenship by making a declaration, the termination of Indian citizenship upon during times of war, the Central Government the registration of such a 2 is correct- A person who voluntarily citizenship of another country automatically ceases a citizen of India except during the times of 3 is incorrect- Marriage to a citizen of does not automatically lead to the loss of India. However, if a person marries a citizen of and then voluntarily acquires the citizenship country, then he or she will lose his or her 4 is incorrect- Criticizing the government lead to the loss of citizenship of India. A person is criticize the government as long as he or she does in any activities that are seditious or subversive. Important Tips The Citizenship Act (1955) specifies three ways of losing Indian citizenship: renunciation, terminatio

8. #8UPPCS 2015
   Which one of the following features of citizenship in India is correct?
   • ADual Citizenship of the State and Nation
   • BSingle Citizenship of a State
   • CSingle Citizenship of whole of India
   • DDual Citizenship of India and another Country
   Answer: (C) Single Citizenship of whole of India
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct the Indian Constitution adopts a federal dual governance (central and state), it establishes citizenship, namely Indian citizenship. In pledge allegiance solely to the Union, and there distinct concept of state citizenship. In contrast, like the USA and Switzerland have embraced of dual citizenship, allowing individuals to at both the national and state levels

9. #9UPPCS 2013
   Who/which of the following is competent to prescribe conditions for acquisition of citizenship?
   • AElection Commission
   • BPresident
   • CParliament and State Legislatures jointly
   • DParliament
   Answer: (D) Parliament
   Explanation

   Option d is the correct 11 of the Constitution of India gives the power to make laws with respect to the acquisition of citizenship. This includes the power conditions for the acquisition of citizenship

10. #10UPPCS 2003
    To give constitutional protection, state land reforms laws have been included in the
    • A7th Schedule
    • B9 th Schedule
    • C8 th Schedule
    • D10 th Schedule
    Answer: (B) 9 th Schedule
    Explanation

    Option bis the correct Ninth Schedule currently contains 284 laws reforms laws, and laws relating to the and Scheduled Tribes. The Ninth Schedule to the Constitution in 1951, in order to protect laws from being struck down by the Supreme Court. Important Tips The Ninth Schedule contains a list of central and state laws that are immune to court challenges. It was introduced by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951. Article of the Indian Constitution established the Ninth Schedule, which shields specific laws or enactments ( unlike Article 31 A, which extends protection to 'classes' of laws). Article operates retrospectively, meaning that if laws are added to the Ninth Schedule after being declared unconstitutional, they are considered valid from their commencement. Although Article excludes judicial review, the Supreme Court has asserted that laws under the Ninth Schedule can still

11. #11UPSC CDS 2023
    The Citizenship Act, 1955 deals with the determination of citizenship on or after
    • A26th January, 1950
    • B26th November, 1949
    • C15th August, 1947
    • D14th August, 1947
    Answer: (A) 26th January, 1950
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct Citizenship Act, 1955 deals with the determination on or after 26th January, 1950, which commencement of the Act and the establishment of of India. Prior to the Citizenship Act, 1955, provisions regarding citizenship in India were the Indian Independence Act, 1947, and the India, which came into effect on 26th November, the Citizenship Act, 1955 consolidated and various laws and provisions related to citizenship into legislation

12. #12UPSC CDS 2022
    Consider the following pairs of Schedule and Content of the Constitution of India: 1. First Schedule Forms of Oaths or Affirmations 2. Third Allocation of seats in Schedule the Council of States 3. Fifth Schedule Provisions related to the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes 4. Ninth Provisions related to Schedule the administration of tribal areas in certain StatesHow many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
    • A1
    • B2
    • C3
    • D4
    Answer: (A) 1
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct st pair is incorrectly matched: The First Schedule of of India contains details about the states territories of India, along with their territories nd pair is incorrectly matched: The Third Schedule Constitution of India y contains the forms of oaths for elected officials such as the President, governors, judges, and other authorities. pair is correctly matched: The Fifth Schedule of of India indeed contains provisions related to the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. the powers and functions of the tribal advisory for the welfare and advancement of Scheduled other related th pair is incorrectly matched: The Ninth Schedule of of India a special provision that was added certain laws from judicial scrutiny on the grounds fundamental rights. It includes laws related to the abolition of the zamindari system, and and economic reforms

13. #13UPSC CDS 2016
    Which one of the following statements with regard to the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct?
    • AIt was inserted by the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951
    • BThe acts and regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule shall become void on the ground that it violates Right in Part of the Constitution
    • CThe supreme court has power of judicial review of an act included in the Ninth Schedule on the doctrine of basic structure
    • DThe appropriate legislature can repeal or amend an act specified in the Ninth Schedule
    Answer: (B) The acts and regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule shall become void on the ground that it violates Right in Part of the Constitution
    Explanation

    Option bis the correct answer. Ninth Schedule says that the article mentioned in this are immune from judicial review it is for the larger good of the society, the government cannot be challenged in the court for his actions. Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by First Constitutional Amendment, 1951. In a landmark ruling on 11th January 2007, the Supreme Court ruled that all laws (including those in the Ninth Schedule) would be open to judicial review, if they violated the basic structure of the Constitution. (Statement b is incorrect)

14. #14Previous year
    Which of the following statements with regard to citizenship provisions of the Constitution of India is/are correct? 1. No person shall be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 5, or be deemed to be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 6 or Article 8, if he/she has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign state. 2. The Parliament has power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship.Select the correct answer using the codes given below [CDS Pre. 2015 HJ
    • AOnly 1
    • BOnly 2
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct answer. As per article 9 No person shall be a citizen of India by virtue of article 5, or be deemed to be a citizen of India by virtue of article 6 or article 8, if he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign State. As per article 11 The Parliament has the right to make any provision concerning the acquisition and termination of citizenship and any other matter relating to citizenship

15. #15UPSC CDS 2015
    Which is/are not:correct for the 9th Schedule of the Constitution of India? 1. It was inserted by the First Amendment in 1951. 2. It includes those laws which are beyond the purview of judicial review. 3. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment. ! 1 1 4. The laws in the 9th Schedule are primarily those which pertain to the matters of national security.Select the correct answer using the codes given below
    • A1 and 2
    • B2 and 3
    • C3 and 4
    • DOnly 3
    Answer: (C) 3 and 4
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct answer. The 9th schedule was added to the constitution by the 1st amendt. to the constitution in 1951 (Statement 3 is incorrect) The Ninth Schedule of the Constitution contains a list of central and state laws which cannot be challenged in courts. (Statement 4 is incorrect)

16. #16UPSC CSE Prelims 2021
    A legislation which confers on the executive State. or administrative authority an unguided Select the correct answer using the code given and uncontrolled discretionary power in below:the matter of application of law violates (a) 1 only which one of the following Articles of the (b) 2 only Constitution of India? (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only 9. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?
    • AArticle 19
    • BArticle 21
    • CArticle 25
    • DArticle 29
    Answer: (A) Article 19
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct 1 is correct. The Indian Constitution provides a single citizenship, that is, the Indian citizenship. in India owe allegiance only to the Union. There separate state citizenship. Also, when an Indian acquires the citizenship of another country, citizenship automatically is only one domicile allowed in India. can be made only in one State/UT. In 201 High Court declared that there is no for each State and there is only one domicile for 2 is incorrect. The President is the Head of State. In India, both a citizen by birth as well as citizen are eligible for the office of a naturalized citizen can become the Head of the is different from USA, where only a citizen by not a naturalised citizen) is eligible for the office 3 is incorrect. A foreigner, who has been Indian citizenship, can be deprived of his citizenship. Important Tips The Indian citizenship of a person can

17. #17UPSC CAPF 2014
    Residuary powers have been given to the Union Parliament. 2. In the matter of residuary powers, the Constitution of India follows the Constitution of Australia. 3. Schedule 7 of the Constitution of India provides a list of residuary powers. 4. The Government of India Act, 1935 placed residuary powers in the hands of the Governor-General.Select the correct answer using the codes given below. Codes
    • A1 and 3
    • B2 and 3
    • C1 and 4
    • DOnly 4
    Answer: (A) 1 and 3
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct Prisons Act 1894 is one of the oldest pieces of India dealing with laws enacted in relation to prisons 1 is correct: Prison is a State subject under List of the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution States primary role, responsibility and power to change prison laws, rules and it is true that prisons are managed by the with their own rules and 2 is correct: The management and Prisons falls exclusively in the domain of the and is governed by the Prisons Act, the Prison Manuals of the respective State it is true that the Prisons Act 1894 kept the prisons in the Provincial government (State this explains why State governments have the frame their own rules and regulations regarding

18. #18UPPCS 2005
    Which one of the following States has the highest number of reserve seats for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha?
    • ABihar
    • BUttar Pradesh
    • CMadhya Pradesh
    • DGujarat
    Answer: (C) Madhya Pradesh
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct Pradesh has the highest number of reserved seats Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha. There are seats reserved for Scheduled Tribes in Madhya is followed by Gujarat with 26 seats, Maharashtra seats, and Odisha with 21 seats Important Tips State Total seat{ for Scheduleil Chattisgarh 11 4 Odisha 21 5 Madhya Pradesh 29 6 Jharkhand 14 5 Rajasthan 25 4 Maharashtra 48 5 Gujarat

19. #19State PCS 2014
    Who is empowered for imposition and realization of a collective fine under SC and ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989
    • ADistrict Magistrate
    • BState Government
    • CSpecial Court
    • DHigh Court
    Answer: (B) State Government
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct State Government is empowered for imposition of a collective fine under the Scheduled Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, the Government of India enacted the and Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act in order atrocities against SC/STs. The purpose of the Act prevent atrocities and help in social inclusion of the society

20. #20State PCS 2013
    Under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act 1989, which of the following is barred?
    • AAnticipatory Bail
    • BPost-arrest bail E l e I] Foni m
    • CBenefit of probation
    • DAll of the above
    Answer: (A) Anticipatory Bail
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled of Atrocities) Act, 1989, Anticipatory Bail This means that a person accused of committing under this Act cannot apply for anticipatory bai or Important Tips Some important salient features of the Scheduled castes and scheduled tribes (prevention of atrocities) Act, 1989, are following: - Denial of Anticipatory bail (Section 18). Grant arms licenses to STs and SCs (Rule Section 19 - Denial of Probation to convict. Creation of Special courts (Section 14). Appointment of Special Public prosecutors (Section 15). Creation of new types of offenses not in the Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955 or Indian Penal Code. Empowers the Government to impose collective fines (Section 16). Punishment for neglect of Duties by a Public servant (Section 4)

21. #21State PCS 2012
    The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act is a special provision for the advancement of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes which is based on which one of the following doctrines?
    • ADoctrine of Severability
    • BDoctrine of Preferred Position
    • CDoctrine of Protective discrimination
    • DDoctrine of Harmonious Construction
    Answer: (C) Doctrine of Protective discrimination
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention Act is a special provision for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in India. based on the doctrine of protective recognizes the historically disadvantaged these communities and seeks to provide them safeguards and protections against and social injustices. The Act aims to prevent atrocities committed against Scheduled Castes Tribes and ensure their social, educational, empowerment GOV Important Tips Doctrine of Severability: The doctrine of severability refers to the principle that if a provision of a law or statute is found to be unconstitutional, it can be separated or "severed" from the rest of the law, allowing the remaining valid provisions to remain in effect. Doctrine of Preferred Position: The doctrine of preferred position refers to the principle that certain fundamental rights or constitutional prov

22. #22State PCS 2012
    The Protection of Civil Rights Act extends to
    • AThe whole of India
    • BThe whole of India except the Scheduled areas
    • CThe whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir
    • DThe whole of India except the Union Territories of Goa, Daman and Diu Jll, 1
    Answer: (A) The whole of India
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct Protection of Civil Rights Act extends to the whole This means that the act applies to all the states 1 1 union territories of India, including Jammu and Daman and Diu, and the scheduled areas. Important Tips The offences punishable under Protection of Civil Rights Act are: Enforcing religious disabilities, such as preventing a person from entering a place of worship or performing a religious service on the ground of untouchability. Enforcing social disabilities, such as denying access to a shop, public restaurant, hotel, place of public entertainment, public conveyance, or any occupation, trade or business on the ground of untouchability. Refusing to admit a person to a hospital, dispensary, educational institution, or any other public service on the ground of untouchability. Refusing to sell goods or render services to a person on the ground of untouchability. O

23. #23Previous year
    The merger of a political party with another political party in India is recognized in which of the following conditions? [Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2019)
    • AWhen not less than one-third members of the legislature party have agreed to such merger
    • BWhen not less than half members of the legislature party have agreed to such merger
    • CWhen not less than two-third members of the legislature party have agreed to such merger
    • DWhen not less than three-fourth members of the legislature party have agreed to such merger
    Answer: (C) When not less than two-third members of the legislature party have agreed to such merger
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct answer. The recognition of a merger of a political party with party in India is subject to certain conditions as Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, also the Anti-Defection Law. According to the a merger of a political party with another party if not less than two-thirds of the members legislature party have agreed to such merger. Important Tips If a member, after being elected as the presiding officer of the House, voluntarily gives up the membership of his party or rejoins it after he ceases to hold that office, he would not be disqualified on the grounds of Anti- Defection Law. This exemption has been provided in view of the dignity and impartiality of this office

24. #24UPSC CDS 2018
    Which one of the following regarding the procedure and conduct of business in the Parliament is not correct?
    • ATo discuss state matters
    • BTo discuss issues of the use of police force in suppressing the Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe communities
    • CTo discuss issues in dealing with violent disturbances in an undertaking under the control of the Union Government
    • DTo discuss issues for putting down the demands of the industrial labour
    Answer: (A) To discuss state matters
    Explanation

    Option a is the couect answer To discuss state matters in general condition does not lie under procedure and conduct of business of Parliament under Article 246 of the Constitution. (option a is not correct) Parliament has right to make laws on Union list and Concurrent list of Schedule seven. Parliament can discuss the issue of Police action against the Schedule Castes and Tribes under the Scheduled Castes and Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 Issue of Industrial labours come under Concurrent list, so it can be discussed in Parliament. Parliament can also discuss issues in dealing with violent disturbances in an undertaking under the control of the Union Government Important Tips Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Council of States have been formulated under Article 118 of the Constitution wherein each House of Parliament is required to make rules for regulating

25. #25UPSC CDS 2017
    Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has fixed the number of Members of the Rajya Sabha to be elected from each state?
    • AFifth Schedule
    • BThird Schedule
    • CSixth Schedule
    • DFourth Schedule
    Answer: (D) Fourth Schedule
    Explanation

    Option dis the correct answer. Third It contains the forms of oath and affirmation Schedule for: Union Ministers of India Parliament Election Candidates Members of Parliament (MPs) Supreme Court Judges Comptroller and Auditor General State Ministers State Legislature Elections' Candidates State Legislature Members High Court Judges Fourth It contains the provisions in relation to Schedule the allocation of seats for States and Union Territories in the Rajya sabha (option d is correct) Fifth It contains provisions in relation to the Schedule administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes Sixth It contains provisions in relation to Schedule administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram

26. #26UPSC CSE Prelims 2022
    If a Particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
    • AThis would prevent the transfer ofl and of tribal people to non-tribal people
    • BThis would create a local self governing body in that area
    • CThis would convert that area into a Union Territory
    • DThe State having such areas would be declare a Special Category State
    Answer: (A) This would prevent the transfer ofl and of tribal people to non-tribal people
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct a is correct. The Fifth Schedule of the with the administration and control of as well as of Scheduled Tribes residing in any than the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura can make regulations for the peace and of a scheduled area after consulting the council. Such regulations may prohibit or transfer of land by tribal to non tribal among members of the scheduled tribes, regulate of land to members of the scheduled b is incorrect. According to the provisions 4, under Article of Fifth Schedule of of India, the Tribes Advisory Councils be established in each State having Scheduled and, if the President so directs, also in any Scheduled Tribes but not Scheduled Areas. council is an advisory body, not a governing c is incorrect. Bringing any particular area under Schedule of the Constitution of India does not area into a Union d is incorrect. Bringing any particular ar

27. #27Previous year
    Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both? [UPSC CSE Pre. 2013)
    • AState Forest Department
    • BDistrict Collector /Deputy Commissioner
    • CTahsildar/Block Development Officer/ Mandal Revenue Officer
    • DGram Sabha
    Answer: (D) Gram Sabha
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct the provisions of the Scheduled Tribes and Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest 2006, the Gram Sabha shall be the authority to process for determining the nature and extent or community forest rights. The Gram Sabha a resolution to that effect and thereafter forward a the same to the Sub-Divisional Level Committee

28. #28Previous year
    In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha? 1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas. 2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce. 3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC CSE Pre. 2012)
    • A1 only
    • B1 and 2 only
    • C2 and 3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3
    Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct Panchayat (Extension of the Scheduled Areas) Act, PESA, was enacted by the Centre to ensure gram sabhas for people living in scheduled areas. recognizes the right of tribal communities, the scheduled areas, to govern themselves through systems of self-government. It also acknowledges rights over natural l is correct. Section ) of PESA State to enact laws for the purpose of empowering and Panchayats at the appropriate level "to of land in the Scheduled Areas and to action to restore any unlawfully alienated a Scheduled 2 is correct. Section (ii) of PESA endows at the appropriate level and the Gram Sabha ownership of minor forest 3 is incorrect. According to the provisions of Act, 1996 the recommendations of the Gram the Panchayats at the appropriate level shall be prior to grant of prospecting licence or for minor minerals (not any mineral) in the

29. #29Previous year
    When was the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act passed by Indian Parliament? [. (Pre) 2022)
    • A1996
    • B1993
    • C1998
    • D1995
    Answer: (A) 1996
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) or PESA was passed by the Indian Parliament on 1996 to extend the provisions of Part IX of relating to the Panchayats to the Scheduled Areas are areas identified by the of the Constitution, which have of tribal communities. The PESA Act aims self-governance through traditional Gram people living in the Scheduled Areas and to manage their natural resources and The PESA Act is also called "Constitution Constitution"

30. #30State PCS 2016
    In which of the following group of the States, PESA [Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act], 1996 is not enforceable?
    • ARajasthan-Telangana-Maharashtra
    • BAndhra Pradesh-Jharkhand-Odisha
    • CAssam-Meghalaya-Tamil Nadu
    • DHimachal Pradesh-Gujarat-Chhattisgarh
    Answer: (C) Assam-Meghalaya-Tamil Nadu
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct Act is not enforceable in these three states Nadu) and Meghalaya do not have any Scheduled Areas the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which areas covered by the PESA Nadu has only one Scheduled Area, district, but it is exempted from the Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats and hence also from the PESA states that have enacted PESA rules are Telangana, Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh

31. #31UPPCS 1991
    Given below are two statements, in which one is Assertion and second is Reason: Assertion (A): The definition of term 'Minority' is not given in the Constitution of India. Reason Minority Commission is not a Constitutional body. Which of the following is correct in regards to the statements above?
    • ABoth (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A) correctly
    • BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A) correctly
    • C(A) is true, but (R) is false
    • D(A) is false, but (R) is true
    Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A) correctly
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct answer. The elected members of the District Council shall hold office for a term of five years from the date appointed for the first meeting of the Council after the general elections to the Council. (option bis correct) Sixth schedule to the constitution of India provides for setting up of autonomous district council The Constitution of India makes special provisions for the administration of the tribal dominated areas in four states viz Assam, Meghalaya Tripura and Mizoram. As per Article 244 and sixth Schedule these areas are called "Tribal Areas The Sixth Schedule envisages establishment of Autonomous District Councils (ADC) Important Tips District council for each autonomous district: It has 30 members. 4 are nominated by the governor - They perform their duties during the pleasure of the governor 26 are elected using the adult franchise - Their term of offic

32. #32State PCS 2018
    Who is not the ex-officio member of the National Human Rights Commission?
    • AThe Chairperson of the National Commission for Mi nor ities
    • BThe Chairperson of the Law Commission of India
    • CThe Chairperson of the National Commission for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
    • DThe Chairperson of the National Commission for Women
    Answer: (B) The Chairperson of the Law Commission of India
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct Chairperson of the Law Commission of India is ex-officio member of the National Human members of NHRC: Chairperson, National Commission for Scheduled Castes Chairperson, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes Chairperson, National Commission for Minorities Chairperson, National Commission for Women Chairperson, National Commission for Backward Classes Chairperson National Commission for Protection of Child Rights Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities

33. #33UPPCS 2016
    Which one of the following is correct about the languages mentioned in the Constitution of India?
    • AState can compel the linguistic mi nor ities to choose their mother tongue as a medium of instruction in primary schools
    • B'Angika' is now included in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution
    • CHindi is National language of India
    • DBodo is a recognized language in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution
    Answer: (B) 'Angika' is now included in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution
    Explanation

    Option bis the correct committee which recommended a three-tier System in India was the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee. Important Tips The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed in 1957 by the Government of India to examine and suggest measures for better working of the Community Development Programme and the National Extension Service. The committee submitted its report in 1958, and recommended the establishment of a democratic decentralised local government, which came to be known as the Panchayati Raj. The committee suggested a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj, comprising the following: Gram Panchayat at the village level, directly elected by the people. Panchayat Samiti at the block level, indirectly elected by the members of the Gram Panchayats within the block. Zila Parishad at the district level, indirectly elected by the members of the Panchayat Samitis within the district

34. #34UPSC CAPF 2015
    Under Section of the Income Tax Act, which of the following category of people are exempted from income tax?
    • AMembers of the Scheduled Tribes in Chhattisgarh
    • BMembers of the Scheduled Tribes and the Scheduled Castes in Special Category States
    • CMembers from the Economically Backward Class in All States
    • DMembers of the Scheduled Tribes in States of Manipur, Mizoram, Nagal and and Tripura
    Answer: (D) Members of the Scheduled Tribes in States of Manipur, Mizoram, Nagal and and Tripura
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct of the Income Tax Act provides from income tax for certain categories In this case, the exemption applies to the Scheduled Tribes in the states of Manipur, and Tripura

35. #35Practice set
    Which among the following provisions of the Constitution came into force on the date of adoption of the Constitution? 1. Superintendence, direction and control of elections to be vested in the Election Commission of India. 2. Proclamation of the National Emergency. 3. Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution. There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Minister at the head to aid and advise the President.Select the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1, 3 and 4 only
    • B1, 2 and 4 only
    • C1 and 3 only
    • D2, 3 and 4 only
    Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct l and Statement 3 are correct - As adopted on 26 th November J 949, some provisions of pertaining to citizenship, elections, temporary and transitional provisions, title contained in Articles 5 (Citizenship at of the Constitution), 6, 7, 8, 9, 60, Commission of India), 366, 367, 379, 380, 392 and 393 came into force on that date 2 and Statement 4 are incorrect - The (the major part) of the Constitution came on January 26, 1950. This day is referred to as the its commencement', and celebrated as the Republic Article 352 (Proclamation of the National Article 74 (There shall be a Council of the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise came into force on date of commencement of i.e. 26 th January 1950

36. #36Practice set
    Provisions related to which of the following topics of the Constitution of India came into force on 26th November 1949? 1. Provisional Parliament 2. Citizenship 3. Directive Principles of State Policy 4. Elections 5. Planning Commission 6. Fundamental RightsSelect the correct answer using the codes given below
    • A1, 2, 3 and 5 only
    • B1, 2 and 4 only
    • C2, 3, 4 and 6 only
    • D1, 2, 3, 4, 5 6
    Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4 only
    Explanation

    Option b is the 1, 2 and 4 are correct: Some provisions Constitution pertaining to citizenship, parliament, temporary and and short title contained in Articles 5, 6, 7, 60, 324, 366, 367, 379, 380, 388, 391, 392 and 393 are related to citizenship, elections, temporary and transitional provision) came on November 26, 1949 3, 5 and 6 are incorrect: The provisions of of State Policy and Fundamental Rights came on January 26, 1950. The Planning Commission extra constitutional body. G Important Tips Why was 26 January 1950 chosen for the new Constitution to come into force? The date 26 January 1950 was chosen to coincide with 20th anniversary of the celebration of the Independence Day at the Lahore session of the Congress under Nehru and to symbolize India's transition to a republic

37. #37Practice set
    Consider the following pairs of Schedules of the Constitution of India and its subject matter:Schedule Subject Matter 1. Second Provisions for Schedule emoluments, allowances, privileges 2. Fourth Schedule Forms of Oaths or Affirmations 3. Seventh Division of powers Schedule between the Union and the States 4. Eleventh Powers, authority and Schedule responsibilities of MunicipalitiesHow many pairs given above are correctly matched?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll four
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option bis the correct l is correctly matched. Second Schedule provisions relating to the emoluments, of Prl'sidcnt, uf States, Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, Chairman and of the Raj ya Sabha, Speaker and Deputy Speaker Legislative Assembly in the states, Chairman and of the Legislative Council in the states, Judges Supreme C,,ui l aud the High Courts, Comptroller 2 is incorrectly matched. Schedule allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states union territories. Third Schedule contains the Forms or 3 is correctly matched. Seventh Schedule relates of powers between the Union and the States of List T (Union List), List (State List) and List ( Concurrent 4 is incorrectly matched..Eleventh Schedule powns,,wthority and responsibilities of has 29 matters. This schedule was added by the Act of 1992. Twelfth Schedule specifies authority and responsibilities of has 18 matters. This sched

38. #38Practice set
    Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Ninth Schedule of the Constitution? 1. It was added to the constitution by the first Amendment. 2. Currently the laws placed under it are outside the purview of judicial review. 3. Acts of the State legislatures cannot be put under it by the Parliament.Select the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B2 and 3 only
    • C1 and 3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3
    Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Option his th;, correct 1 is correct. The Ninth Schedule wcis the constitution by the first Amendment (1951). It by the new Article which along with in by the tu protect was by the government laws related to agrarian reform abolishing the Zamindari system from judicial 2 is incorrect. In Coelho case (2007), as Ninth schedule case, upheld the authority of to review any law put in ninth schedule. laws under the Ninth Schedule are now upen 3 is incorrect. The Parliament has power the laws of parliament itself as well as laws of legislature into the ninth Solution: Option a is the correct l is incorrect. Coustitulions exist not only countries but also in other forms of monarchies. However, in a monarchical monarch takes major decisions. On same lines in some like the old Soviet Union, one single party the power to decide. But in democratic people get to 2 is incorrect. Constitutions document

39. #39Practice set
    Which of the following functions are served by the Constitution of India? 1. It serves as guide to the state to institute laws and policies to reduce poverty. 2. It provides a set of basic rules for coordination amongst members of a society. 3. It helps judiciary to decide the legality of 71. Consider the following Pairs: the laws framed by the legislatures Schedules of the 4. It helps in ensuring that people with good Constitution morals and values reach to power. 1. Third ScheduleSelect the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1, 3 and 4 only
    • B1 and 3 only 2. Fifth Schedule
    • C2, 3 and 4 only
    • D1, 2 and 3 only
    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct l is correct. The Constitution of India has called Directive Principles of State Policy. It is greater social and economic reforms, and to serve guide to the independent Indian State to institute laws that help reduce the poverty of the 2 is correct. The constitution provides set rules that allows for minimal degree of the member of the society. Any law is made mind the bare minimum of order that is needed. Rest, on the members of the society on how they relate and live in a harmonica! 3 is correct. Any law framed by the legislature to the fundamental law of land i.e., constitution. it is violative of any part of the constitution, declare the law as null and void. Thus, the judiciary to decide the legality of the 4 is incorrect. The constitution provides only and procedures on how the citizens are to be governs them is the responsibility of the doesn't deal with t

40. #40Practice set
    Consider the following statements regarding the Second Schedule and the Third Schedule of Indian Constitution: 1. Both the second and third schedules contains provision related to Vice President. 2. The President and the Governor of states are included only in Second Schedule and not in the Third Schedule. 3. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is included in both the Schedules. 4. Both the Schedules can be amended by a simple majority of Parliament.How many of the above given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll four
    Answer: (C) Only three
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct the Indian Constitution was adopted in 1949, of 8 Schedules. Now, the Indian Constitution into 12 schedules. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Vice President is in third schedule. The Third Schedule forms of oath and affirmation to be taken by The Chairman (Vice President) and the of the Rajya Sabha are mentioned in schedule Second Schedule deals with the provisions relating emoluments, allowances, privileges, 2 is correct: The President and the states are included only in second Schedule and not 3 is correct: The Comptroller and of India is the head of the Indian audit He is also the chief Guardian of public CAG is included in both and 3rd schedule Indian Constitution. Statement 4 is correct: The amendment to the second schedule is done by Simple Majority of the two Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. Iinportant Tips The Second Schedule deals with the provis

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