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Parliament — UPSC Prelims Polity previous year questions

371 solved previous year questions on Parliament, papers from 1990 to 2023, drawn from UPSC CDS, State PCS, UPSC CAPF. Each carries the printed answer key and the explanation from the source compilation.

371 questions
10 pages
Polity
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  1. #1UPSC CSE Prelims 2020
    In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?
    • AAn agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
    • BAn agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
    • CAn agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
    • DAn Agency for the implementation of public policy
    Answer: (D) An Agency for the implementation of public policy
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct d is Bureaucracy is the executive arm government. In traditional classical literature on government, one studied the legislature, the the judiciary with bureaucracy being subsumed executive (which comprises the political the bureaucracy). Now, one finds that bureaucracy treated separately and this is indicative of its refers to an administrative policy implementation group, which is a body of officials. The major objective of India has not been Parliamentary democracy's rather the implementation of the decisions taken executive. With All India Services at the helm of structure, it cannot be said that federal structure is its main bureaucratic system's most important function has been implementation of public the decisions of the government reach a the ground level. Parliamentary democracy results change at the helm of executive, the static and provides continuity

  2. #2UPSC CSE Prelims 2013
    In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are, implied institutionally in the parliamentary government? 1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament. 2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament. 3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.Select the correct answer using the codes given below
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B3 only
    • C2 and 3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3
    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct the context of India, there are mainly two principles be implied institutionally in the Parliamentary form 1 is correct:. A Member of the Cabinet must be of the Parliament. If a person who is not a member parliament and is appointed as a minister then he/she has elected to either of the two houses of parliament within 2 is correct. In a parliamentary form of council of ministers hold office till they enjoy the the parliament (in India's case that of Lok Sabha). hold the office till they enjoy confidence in 3 is The President is Head of in India, whereas the Cabinet is headed by the of India r G

  3. #3UPPCS 1998
    In representation to talent, experience, and service in the composition of the Council of States, the constitution makers of India were influenced by the example of
    • AIrish Republic
    • BCanada
    • CUSA
    • DAustralia
    Answer: (A) Irish Republic
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct makers of the Indian Constitution were influenced by Republic in representing talent, experience, and the formation of the Rajya Sabha or Council of state

  4. #4State PCS 2002
    Which one of the following is matched correctly
    • AArticle 17 Equality before Law
    • BArticle 78 Establishment of Parliament
    • CArticle 192 Salaries and Allowances of Parliament Members
    • DArticle of Emergency
    Answer: (D) Article of Emergency
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct 352 of the Constitution provides for the National Emergency which can be applied if situation arises that may threaten the stability and governance of the country. Important Tips

  5. #5UPSC CDS 2018
    Which of the following statements relating to the Government of India Act, 1858 is/are correct? 1. The British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company. 2. The British Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British. 3. This Act was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any population participation in the administration of the country.Select the correct answer using the codes given below
    • A1 and 2
    • BOnly 2
    • C1, 2 and 3
    • D1 and 3
    Answer: (D) 1 and 3
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct answer. The government of India act 1858 is also known as the "act for better government of India". It changed the designation of governor general of India to that of viceroy of India 1 - The administration of India was taken from the East India Company and placed directly under the British Crown. (option l is correct) Thus the country was kept under the direct rule of the British and the Cabinet. A new post called Secretary of State was added who would be directly responsible to British cabinet and also a part of it. The act also ended the double government which was started by the Pitts India act 1784. A 15 member advisory council to the secretary of state was formed. This act was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in administration of the country. ( Option 3 is correct) Under this act, all the powers of Cro

  6. #6UPSC CDS 2017
    Which of the following features were borrowed by the Constitution of India from the British Constitution? 1. Rule of Law 2. Law making Procedure 3. Independence of Judiciary 4. Parliamentary SystemSelect the correct answer using the codes given below
    • A1 and 2
    • B2, 3 and 4
    • C1 and 4
    • D1, 2 and 4
    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 4
    Explanation

    Option dis the correct answer The Indian Constitution is unique in its contents and spirit. Though borrowed from almost every Constitution of the world, the Constitution of India has several features that distinguish it from the Constitutions of other countries. Independence of Judiciary has been taken from the Constitution of USA. Following features have been borrowed by the British Constitution: Britain 1. Parliamentary System of government 2. Rule of Law 3. Legislative procedure 4. Single citizenship 5. Cabinet system 6. Prerogative writs 7. Parliamentary privileges 8. Bicameralism United 1. Impeachment of the president States of 2. Functions of president and vice-president America 3. Removal of Supreme Court and High court judges 4. Fundamental Rights 5. Judicial review 6. Independence of judiciary 7. The preamble of the constitution

  7. #7UPSC CAPF 2020
    Which of the following regarding passing a law under the State list is/are correct? 1. Even in the sphere (State list) exclusively reserved for the States, Parliament can legislate under certain circumstances. 2. Parliament cannot legislate a subject under the State list under any circumstances. 3. A resolution supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting is required to be passed by Rajya Sabha to pass a law under the State listSelect the correct answer using the codes given below
    • A1, 2 and 3
    • B2 and 3 only
    • C1 and 3 only
    • D1 Only
    Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct l is correct- Parliament can legislate a the State list in certain conditions. These during a national emergency under when a state makes a request under Article 252, international agreements under Article 253, President's Rule under Article 2 is incorrect- Parliament can legislate a the State list under certain circumstances Emergency and President's rule. So, the Parliament cannot legislate a subject under the State any circumstances is not 3 is correct- As per Article 249 of the the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution supported by not two-thirds of the members present and voting, it is necessary or expedient in the national can make laws on any matter enumerated in list

  8. #8UPSC CAPF 2018
    Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of the Independence Act, 1947?
    • AThe Dominion of India got the residuary territory of India, excluding the provinces of Sind, Baluchistan, West Punjab, East Bengal and NWFP
    • BThe Act sought to lay down a Constitution by the Legislative will of the British Parliament
    • CThe Act proposed to set up two independent Dominions
    • DThe Constituent Assembly of each Dominion was to have unlimited power to frame and adopt any Constitution
    Answer: (B) The Act sought to lay down a Constitution by the Legislative will of the British Parliament
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct Independence Act, 1947, was a British Act of partitioned British India into two India and Pakistan. The Act did not lay constitution for either dominion. Instead, it the establishment of constituent assemblies in which would be responsible for framing constitutions

  9. #9UPSC CSE Prelims 2003
    Which one of following Articles of the Indian constitution provide that it shall he the duty of the Union to protect every state against external aggression and internal disturbance?
    • AArticle 215
    • BArticle 275
    • CArticle 325
    • DArticle 355
    Answer: (D) Article 355
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct the Parliamentary form of Government, the responsible to the legislature and is under its executive remains in office till it enjoys the the legislature, especially the Lok Sabha. The are collectively responsible to the general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75)

  10. #10UPSC CAPF 2016
    With regard to a Constitution Amendment Bill, which one of the following statements is not correct?
    • AThe Speaker of the Lok Sabha can call a joint sitting of both the Houses to pass the Bill J
    • BEach House needs to pass the Bill separately by a prescribed special majority end
    • CThe Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament
    • DThe Bill can be sponsored by a Private Member
    Answer: (A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can call a joint sitting of both the Houses to pass the Bill J
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct a is incorrect: The Speaker of Lok Sabha a joint sitting of both Houses to pass a Bill, as such a bill must be passed separately House with the required bis correct: A Constitution Amendment Bill must separately by both the Houses of Parliament with majority. This means that it should be supported majority of the total membership of each House, as by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the and c is correct: A Constitution Amendment Bill can in either House of Parliament by a minister private member, and does not require the prior the d is correct: A Constitution Amendment Bill can by a private member, but it has very little being passed by Parliament

  11. #11UPSC CDS 2022
    Which one of the following statements about a Bill for Amendment of the Constitution of India is not correct?
    • AIt is governed by Article of the Constitution of India
    • BJoint sitting can be resorted to for Passing a Bill amending the Constitution of India
    • CThe State Legislatures cannot initiate any Bill or proposal for amendment of the Constitution of India
    • DThe previous sanction of the President of India is not required for introducing any Bill in the Parliament for amendment of the Constitution of India
    Answer: (B) Joint sitting can be resorted to for Passing a Bill amending the Constitution of India
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament is not the case of a deadlock over the passage of a bill. However, in the case of an ordinary is a provision for a joint sitting if needed. Important Tipss The procedure for amending the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the South Africa Constitution. Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure. "Parliament can amend the constitution provided that Basic Structure remains intact" - Kesvananda Bharti Case 1973. Parliament can only initiate constitutional amendment bill. It can be introduced by either minister or private member does not require president approval. The bill must be passed by each house by Special Majority. The President must give his assent- Can not return or withhold assent of the constitutional amendment bill. Three ways in w

  12. #12UPSC CDS 2019
    Which among the following statements about the power to change the basic structure of the Constitution of India is/are correct? 1. It falls outside the scope of the amending powers of the Parliament. 2. It can be exercised by the people through representative in a Constituent Assembly. 3. It falls within the constituent powers of the Parliament.Select the correct answer using the codes given below
    • A1 and 3
    • B1 and 2
    • COnly 1
    • D2 and 3 11 Forti
    Answer: (C) Only 1
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct concept of basic structure was laid down by the in the Keshvananda Bharti Case basic structure doctrine states that the India has certain basic features that cannot be altered through amendments by the Parliament does not give absolute powers to the Parliament any part of the can't be exercised by the people through a constituent assembly (Statement 2 is falls outside the constituent powers of the 3 is incorrect)

  13. #13UPSC CSE Prelims 2021
    As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited. 2. In India, matters related to the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.Select the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct I is correct. Parliamentary sovereignty is of the UK constitution. It makes Parliament legal authority in the UK, which can create or law. Generally, the courts cannot overrule its no Parliament can pass laws that future Parliament is not a sovereign body like the The Indian Parliament may, in exercise of power, amend by way of addition, variation any provision of the Constitution in accordance procedure laid down for the purpose. However, cannot amend those provisions which form structure' of the Constitution. This was ruled by Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case 2 is correct. In India, matters related to of an amendment of an act of are referred to the Constitution Bench by Court. Important Tips A Constitution Bench is a bench of the Supreme Court having five or more judges on it. These benches are not a routine phenomenon. A vast majority of cases before the

  14. #14UPSC CSE Prelims 2016
    The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the
    • ALok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
    • BLok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership. 14
    • CRajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
    • DRajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting
    Answer: (D) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct 249 of the Constitution of India deals with the the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in List in national interest. It requires Rajya Sabha to resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of present and voting. Important Tips If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to a matter in the State List, then the Parliament becomes competent to make laws on that matter. Such a resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting. The resolution remains in force for one year; it can be renewed any number of times but not exceeding one year at a time. The laws cease to have effect on the expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force. This provision does not restrict the power of a state legislature to make laws on the same matte

  15. #15UPSC CSE Prelims 2013
    The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
    • Av,ith the consent of all the states
    • Bwith the consent of the majority of states
    • Cwith the consent of the states concerned
    • Dwithout the consent of any state
    Answer: (D) without the consent of any state
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct Parliament can make laws on any matter in the for implementing the international treaties, conventions. It can be done without the consent of This provision enables the Central government its international obligations and examples of laws enacted under the above United Nations (Privileges and Immunities) Act, Convention Act, 1960; Anti-Hijacking Act, 1982 relating to environment and TRIPS

  16. #16UPPCS 2009
    Article 249 of the Indian Constitution deals with
    • AEmergency Power of the President
    • BDissolution of the Lok Sabha
    • CAdministrative Power of the Parliament
    • DLegislative Powers of the Parliament with respect to subjects in the State List
    Answer: (D) Legislative Powers of the Parliament with respect to subjects in the State List
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct 249 of the Indian Constitution deals with the power of to legislate on matters in the State List under Article 249 provides a mechanism for the to intervene in State List subjects temporarily when a need for national interest. However, it is subject to certain balances to ensure that such intervention remains limited not undermine the federal structure of the country. Important Tips The key provisions of Article 249 are as follows: If the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) passes a resolution, supported by not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting, declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws on a specific matter in the State List, then Parliament can do so. The resolution remains in force for a specific period (not exceeding one year) as mentioned in the resolution itself. If the resolution is

  17. #17UPPCS 2010
    In a Parliamentary system of Government
    • AJudiciary controls Executive
    • BExecutive controls Judiciary
    • CExecutive controls Legislature
    • DLegislature controls Executive
    Answer: (D) Legislature controls Executive
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct the Parliamentary form of Government, the responsible to the legislature and is under its executive remains in office till it enjoys the the legislature, especially the Lok Sabha. The are collectively responsible to the general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75)

  18. #18State PCS 2008
    The cardinal features of political system in India are- 1. It is a democratic republic. 2. It has a Parliamentary form of government. 3. The supreme power vests in People of India. 4. It provides for a unified authority.Select the correct answer from the code given below
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B1, 2 and 3 only
    • C2, 3 and 4 only
    • DAll the four
    Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct 1 is correct: India is called a democratic because head of the state is elected by the positions in the government are available to regardless of religion, caste, or gender. The provides for representative under which the executive is responsible to for all its policies and 2 is correct: India has a Parliamentary form The Parliamentary system is a democratic government in which the party (or coalition of the most representation in Parliament the government, with its leader becoming 3 is correct: The Preamble states that derives its authority from the people In Parliamentary system, the supreme power the body of people's representative called a 4 is incorrect: Indian Constitution does a unified authority. The seventh schedule Indian constitution provides the division of state and central government. It has three lists - the Union List, the State List, and List. Ind

  19. #19UPSC CAPF 2022
    Which of the following is/ are source/ sources of Law in India? 1. Constitution of India 2. Statutes 3. Customary Law 4. Case LawSelect the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 only
    • B1, 2 and 4 only
    • C2 and 3 only
    • D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct I is correct- The Constitution of India is law of the land. It lays down the rights, and duties of citizens, and structure and functioning of the government. serves as the foundation and source of all 2 is correct- Statutes, also known as legislation are laws enacted by the Parliament of India or Legislative Assemblies. These laws are formulated by the respective legislative bodies and cover various such as criminal law, civil law, taxation, and more. Statutes are an important source of law 3 is correct- Customary law refers to the and traditions that are followed by a or group of people. Customary laws recognition and are applicable in specific regions particularly in matters related to inheritance, marriage, and other cultural 4 is correct- Case law, also known as refers to the decisions and interpretations the courts while deciding legal disputes. The by higher

  20. #20UPSC CAPF 2017
    Which one of the following judgements declared that the Parliament has NO power to amend any of the provisions of Part HI of the Constitution of India?
    • AKesavananda Bharati Vs. State of Kerala
    • BGolak Nath Vs. State of Punjab
    • CChampakam Dorairajan Vs. State of Madras
    • DMinerva Mills Limited Vs.Government of India
    Answer: (B) Golak Nath Vs. State of Punjab
    Explanation

    Option bis the correct Golak Nath case was a landmark judgment of Court of India in 1967 that dealt with the the power of Parliament to amend the Court held that Parliament could not amend any of of Part of the Constitution, which contains Rights. The Court held that these rights and could not be taken away by Parliament. Important Tip In the Golak Nath case, the Supreme Court declared the 24th Amendment, which amended Article 31 regarding the right to property, as unconstitutional. The Court held that an amendment under Article 368 is "law" within the meaning of Article 13 of the Constitution and therefore, if an amendment "takes away or abridges" a Fundamental Right conferred by Part it is void. However, the Kesavananda Bharati case later overturned the Golak Nath judgment, stating that while Parliament can amend the Constitution, it cannot destroy its basic structure

  21. #21UPSC CSE Prelims 2023
    Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India: 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative State Executives Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. 2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State. 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. 4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.How many of the above statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll four
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct 1 is incorrect. The elected members of and Lower Houses of Parliament that is the and the Lok Sabha as well as the elected Members Legislative Assemblies of States and Union comprise the electoral college for the in 2 is incorrect. The value of vote of each on the ratio of the State's population and of MLAs in its legislative Assembly. By State's population by the number of MLAs in Assembly, and then further dividing the by 1000, one may calculate the value of each Based on a calculation that takes into account population in relation to the number of members legislative Assembly, each MLA's vote value varies to State. According to the Constitution Act of 2001, the population of the States calculated using data from the 1971 3 is incorrect. The vote value of each MLA Pradesh is less than that of the vote value of of Kerala as the ratio of total population to total

  22. #22UPSC CSE Prelims 2020
    Consider the following statements: 1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/ she thinks fit. 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions. 3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • C1 and 3 only
    • D2 and 3 only
    Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct 1 is correct and statement 2 is to Article 85( 1) of the Constitution "The from time to time summon each House of Parliament at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six not intervene between its last sitting in one session date appointed for its first sitting in the next Parliament must meet at least twice a 3 is correct. The parliament sits thrice in a Session (February to May), Monsoon Session (July and Winter Session (November to December). The period during which the House meets to transact is called a session. There is no minimum number that Parliament is required to meet in a year

  23. #23UPSC CSE Prelims 1993
    The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto, is related to
    • AThe Hindu Code Bill
    • BThe PEP SU Appropriation Bill
    • CThe Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill
    • DThe Dowry Prohibition Bill ()thir Questions
    Answer: (C) The Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct Bill passed by the Parliament becomes an Act only gives his assent to it. The President can refuse to give assent on Bill presented. This power "Veto Power" of the President. In 1986 President exercised the pocket veto with respect to the Office (Amendment) Bill. This Bill intended to on the freedom of the press

  24. #24State PCS 2013
    The number of Lok Sabha members required to table a 'No Confidence Motion' against the Council of Ministers is
    • A30
    • B40
    • C50
    • D60
    Answer: (C) 50
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct India, a motion of no confidence can be in the Lok Sabha and after at least 50 members Sabha support it, the Speaker may grant a leave considering the state of business in the House, allot or days or part of a day for the discussion of the sub-rule (2) and (3) of rule 198 of Lok Sabha edition). Important Tips Acharya Kripalani moved the first-ever no-confidence motion on the floor of the Lok Sabha in August 1963, immediately after the disastrous Sino-Indian War. As of July 2019, 27 no-confidence motions have been moved. Prime Minister Indira Gandhi faced the most no- confidence motions (15), followed by Lal Bahadur Shastri and P. V. Narasimha Rao (three each), Morarji Desai (two) and Jawaharlal Nehru, Rajiv Gandhi, Atal Bihari Vajpayee, Narendra Modi (one each). The most recent no-confidence motion was against the Narendra Modi government and accepted by the Speak

  25. #25UPPCS 2012
    The Vice-President of India is elected by the members of an electoral college comprising
    • AOnly elected members of both the Houses of Parliament
    • BAll the members of both the Houses of Parliament
    • COnly elected members of Rajya Sabha and State Assemblies
    • DOnly elected members of State Assemblies
    Answer: (B) All the members of both the Houses of Parliament
    Explanation

    Option bis the correct Vice-President, like the President, is elected not the people but by the method of indirect election. S/he by the members of an electoral college consisting members of both Houses of Parliament. Important Tips The original Constitution provided that the Vice- President would be elected by the two Houses of Parliament assembled at a joint meeting. This cumbersome procedure was done away by the 11th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1961

  26. #26UPPCS 2011
    Which of the following statements is not true regarding the Parliament of India?
    • AThe Constitution provides for a Parliamentary form of Government
    • BThe function of Parliament is to provide for a Cabinet
    • CThe membership of the cabinet is restricted to the Lower House
    • DThe cabinet enjoys the confidence of the majority in the popular chamber of the house
    Answer: (C) The membership of the cabinet is restricted to the Lower House
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct India's parliamentary system, members of the cabinet drawn from both houses of Parliament, i.e., the (Lok Sabha) and the Upper House (Rajya Sabha). allows for a broader representation and be included in the cabinet

  27. #27UPPCS 2004
    Which one of the following is presided over by one who is not its member?
    • ALok Sabha
    • BVidhan Sabha
    • CRajya Sabha
    • DCouncil of Ministers
    Answer: (C) Rajya Sabha
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct Rajya Sabha is presided over by the Vice-President who is not a member of the Rajya Sabha. As per of the Indian Constitution, the as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. that the Vice-President, in their capacity as presides over the sessions of the Rajya Sabha, maintains order, and ensures the smooth functioning house, even though they are not a member of the

  28. #28State PCS 2004
    Under which of the following Article of Indian Constitution the Governor may reserve a Bill for the consideration of the President?
    • AArticle 169
    • BArticle 200
    • CArticle 201
    • DArticle 202
    Answer: (B) Article 200
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct Article 200 of Indian Constitution, the Governor a Bill for the consideration of the President. After bill passed by both Houses of the Legislature of the State, it presented to the Governor and the Governor shall that he assents to the Bill or that he withholds or that he reserves the Bill for the consideration President. Important Tips Other Articles given in the question: Article 169: Article 169 of the Constitution allows Parliament to either create or abolish a Legislative Council in a state if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect. Article 201: Article 201 deals with procedure followed in case of 'Bills Reserved for Consideration' of the President. Article 202: Under Article 202 of the Constitution of India, a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the State for each financial year has to be laid before the

  29. #29UPPCS 1993
    Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the code given below: Ministers make policy and civil servants adhere to that policy. Parliamentary form of government works on the principle of 'Cabinet Collective Responsibility'. Code
    • ABoth (A) and (R) are true, and (A) is correct explanation of (R)
    • BBoth (A) and (R) are true, and (A) is not the correct explanation of (R)
    • C(A) is true, (R) is false
    • D(A) is false, (R) is true
    Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (A) is not the correct explanation of (R)
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct (A) is true: In a parliamentary form the ministers are responsible for implementing government policies. The civil responsible for providing advice and assistance to but they do not have the authority to make (R) is true: Cabinet collective known as collective ministerial responsibility, constitutional convention in parliamentary members of the cabinet must publicly support decisions made in Cabinet, even if they do agree with is not the correct explanation of The fact make policy decisions and civil servants adhere policies is a general characteristic of how not necessarily specific to the principle of Responsibility'

  30. #30State PCS 2013
    According to the Constitution, which among the following is literally not a 'Power' of the President of India?
    • APromulgation of Ordinances
    • BTo consult the Supreme Court
    • CTo send messages to Houses of Parliament
    • DTo grant Pardon
    Answer: (C) To send messages to Houses of Parliament
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct powers of the Indian President can be broadly 8 headings. Legislative - Promulgation of Ordinances Executive or Appointment powers Judicial powers To consult Supreme Court Financial power Diplomatic powers Military powers Pardoning Powers - To grant Pardon Emergency 86 of the constitution states that the president messages to the Houses of Parliament relating to bills pending or otherwise. Thus it is literally not a power

  31. #31Previous year
    On which matter, it is not essential for the President to take advice from the Council of Ministers? [Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2015)
    • AAppointment of Ambassadors
    • BTo assent to Bills
    • CTo assent to Bills referred by Governors
    • DTo dissolve Lok Sabha (e) To assent on constitutional amendment bill
    Answer: (B) To assent to Bills
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct is not essential for the President to take advice from of Minister while giving assent to bills. On like appointment of Ambassadors, to dissolve to give assent on Constitutional Amendment bill give assent to bills referred by governors, it is essential President to take advice from Council of Minister

  32. #32CGPSC 2015
    After resigning, whose permission does a minister require to give a statement in Lok Sabha?
    • APrime Minister
    • BSpeaker
    • CPresident
    • DSupreme Court (e) None of the above
    Answer: (B) Speaker
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct minister who has resigned from the government does his or her membership of the Lok Sabha. Therefore, she can still participate in the debates and discussions Lok Sabha. However, he or she cannot make a the Lok Sabha without the permission of the Speaker, any other member

  33. #33UPSC CDS 2023
    Which one of the following committees does not have members from the Rajya Sabha?
    • AThe Public Accounts Committee
    • BThe Committee Undertakings on Public
    • CThe Estimates Committee
    • DThe Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
    Answer: (C) The Estimates Committee
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct Estimates Committee is a standing committee of Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of India. responsible for scrutinizing the government's and suggesting ways to improve their economy. The committee has 30 members, all of elected members of the Lok Sabha

  34. #34Previous year
    Which one of the following regarding the ordinance making power of the Governor is not correct? [CDS
    • AIt is not a discretionary power
    • BThe Governor may withdraw the ordinance anytime
    • CThe ordinance power can be exercised when the Legislature is not in session
    • DThe aid and advice of Ministers is not required for declaring the ordinance
    Answer: (D) The aid and advice of Ministers is not required for declaring the ordinance
    Explanation

    Option dis the correct answer Article 213 empowers the Governor to promulgate Ordinance, during recess of legislature. Important Tip Governor of an Indian state draws ordinance making power from Article 213 of the Constitution. The Governor can only issue ordinances when the Legislative Assembly of a state or where there are two houses in a state both houses are not in session. Governor's ordinance-making power is not a discretionary power. This means that he can promulgate or withdraw an ordinance only on the advice of the council of ministers headed by the chief minister

  35. #35UPSC CAPF 2021
    The Electoral College for electing the President of India does not include which of the following? 1. All elected members of the Rajya Sabha. 2. All elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States. 3. All members of the Legislative Councils of States.Select the correct answer using the codes given below
    • A1 and 2
    • B2 and 3
    • C3 only
    • D2 only
    Answer: (C) 3 only
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct 1 is correct- The Rajya Sabha, also known Council of States, is the upper house of the India. Elected members of the Rajya Sabha are the Electoral College and have the right to vote in 2 is correct- All elected members of Assemblies of States are included in College. The Legislative Assembly of each India consists of elected representatives who have to vote in the presidential 3 is incorrect- The Legislative Council, as the Vidhan Parishad, is the upper house state legislature in some states of India. However, of the Legislative Councils are not part of College for electing the President of India. Important Tip Election of President of India: The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. Voting is done through Secret The Electoral College for electing the President of India consists of the

  36. #36UPSC CAPF 2020
    Which of the following regarding promulgation of ordinance is/are correct? 1. President can promulgate ordinances which are of temporary duration. 2. An ordinance promulgated by the President has to be ratified by Parliament within six weeks of its re-assemblySelect the correct answer using the codes given below
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct 1 is correct- According to Article 123, has the power to promulgate an ordinance one or both houses of Parliament are not in ordinances are temporary in nature and can be address urgent 2 is correct- The approval of Parliament for an ordinance to become a law. The be laid before both houses of Parliament and approved within six weeks from the reassembly If not approved, the ordinance ceases to Important Tip Ordinances can only be introduced on subjects within the legislative competence of the Indian Parliament. The President's ordinances have the same effect on policies as acts passed by Parliament. Article 213 deals with the power of the Governor to legislate through ordinances. The Governor's ordinances have the same effect on policies as state acts will have. If the Governor's ordinance legislates on matters where the state government has no power, the ordinanc

  37. #37UPSC CAPF 2015
    Under Article 355 of the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the Union to
    • Aprotect Sates against external aggression and internal disturbance
    • Ballow the extension of executive powers of the Union to any Sate
    • Cdeclare that the powers of the Legislature of a State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament
    • Dallow the Parliament to include or exclude any caste, race or tribe into the list of the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes
    Answer: (A) protect Sates against external aggression and internal disturbance
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct Article 355 of the Constitution of India, it is of the Union to protect every State against and internal disturbance. This means that government is responsible for ensuring the integrity of the States by defending them against threats or acts of aggression

  38. #38UPSC CSE Prelims 2022
    Which of the following is/are the exclusive of Lok Sabha? 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers 3. To impeach the President of IndiaSelect the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 and 2
    • B2 only 5
    • C1 and 3
    • D3 only
    Answer: (B) 2 only 5
    Explanation

    Option b is. the correct l is incorrect: The proclamation of be approved by both the Houses of Parliament month from the date of its issue. If approved by Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for and can be extended to an indefinite period with of the Parliament for every six 2 is correct: Article 75 (3) provides cleariy Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible House of the People. So, only can pass a motion against the Council of 3 is incorrect: As per Article 61, when a to be impeached for violation of the Constitution, can be initiated by either House of Parliament. resolution needs to be passed by a majority of the total membership in each house. Thus, it an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha

  39. #39UPSC CSE Prelims 2022
    With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker RE tate Legislatures. of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. 4. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved hy the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.Which of the statements given above are correct?
    • A1 and 3 only
    • B1, 2 and 3
    • C3 and 4 only
    • D2 and 4 only
    Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct I is correct: The date of election of the is fixed by the Speaker. While on the other of election of the Speaker is fixed by the 2 is incorrect: There is no mandatory the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of shall be from either the principal opposition party ruling party. It is only by convention that the Deputy Speaker is offered to the opposition party 3 is correct: In case of the absence of the Deputy Speaker presides over the sessions Lok Sabha and conducts the business in the house. L Fon Deputy Speaker has the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House. Statement 4 is incorrect: The Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker has taken place. There is no provision and or established practice of moving the motion for his election by the speaker and it is

  40. #40UPSC CSE Prelims 2019
    In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.? 1. Ad Hoc Committee set up by the Parliament. 2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committee 3. Finance Commission 4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission 5. NITI AayogSelect the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B1, 3 and 4 only
    • C3, 4 and 5 only
    • D2 and 5 only
    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct regularity authorities are agencies of governments. They are parts of the with a certain degree of statutory or reporting directly to the legislature. Like executive, they are accountable to the legislature to judicial review. Hoc Committee set up by the Parliament and Related Standing Committee review regulators in sectors like electricity, Commission and NITI Aayog are advisory do not review the independent regulators in telecommunications. Financial Sector Commission (FSLRC) also had no role in regulators

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