UPSC Prelims PYQ › Polity › Parliament

Parliament — UPSC Prelims Polity previous year questions — page 10

371 solved previous year questions on Parliament, papers from 1990 to 2023, drawn from UPSC CDS, State PCS, UPSC CAPF. Each carries the printed answer key and the explanation from the source compilation.

1. #361Full-length test
   Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for considering the Indian Constitution as a 'living document'? { }
   • AInterpretation of its will remain constant and does not change with the time and context
   • BIt provides values and guidelines essential for the development of an individu.al
   • CIt has been given the status oflegalperson by the Supreme court
   • DIt can be amended from time to time to accommodate the necessary changes in society
   Answer: (D) It can be amended from time to time to accommodate the necessary changes in society
   Explanation

   Option d is the correct Constitution of India is considered to be a as it accepts necessity of modifications varying needs of the society. And it can be amended time to time for accommodating necessary changes society. The Constitution of India embodies a of flexibility and allows the Parliament to amend the accommodate the sitations in the country. This feature of the changes in the society makes a living document

2. #362Full-length test
   With reference to Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), consider the following statements: 1. The scheme is under the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs. 2. The elected member of Lok Sabha cannot recommend funds from MPLADS for any developmental work carried outside their constituency. 3. Currently, interest accrued on the_annual MPLADS funds cannot be used by MPs for developmental works.How many of the above given statements are correct?
   • AOnly one
   • BOnly two
   • CAll three
   • DNone
   Answer: (A) Only one
   Explanation

   Option a is the correct Members of Parliament Local Area Scheme is a Central Sector eme, by the Government of India. The Scheme aims each Member of Parliament to recommend developmental nature with emphasis on the creation community assets based on the locally felt needs people 1 is incorrect: MPLADS scheme is under of Statistics and Programme Implementation the Ministry of Parliamentary 2 is incorrect: Normally the elected Member can recommend MPLADS work only within constituency. However, an elected member of Lok recommend work outside his/her constituency subject two conditions

3. #363Full-length test
   With reference to money bill introduced by the central government, consider the following statements: 1. A bill is deemed to be a money bill if it contains only the provision mentioned under Article 110 of the Indian Constitution. 2. All money bills are a type of financial bill, but all financial bills are not money bills. 3. It can be introduced in Parliament only on the recommendation of the President. 4. It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.How many of the above given statements are correct?
   • AOnly one
   • BOnly two
   • COnly thtee
   • DAll four { }
   Answer: (D) All four { }
   Explanation

   Option d is the correct bills are those bills that deal with fiscal is, revenue or expenditure. However, the the term 'financial bill' in a technical 1 is correct: Article 110 of the Constitution the definition of money bills. It states that a bill to be a money bill if it contains 'only' with article 110. Only those financial bills bills which contain exclusively those matters mentioned in Article 110 of the 2 is correct: Money bills are simply a species bills. Hence, all money bills are financial bills, financial bills are not money bills. As financial bills 117 can contain provisions outside Article 110 of Constitution as 3 and 4 are correct: In two respects, a (I) is similar to a money both of them can be introduced only in the Lok not in the Rajya Sabha, both of them can be introduced 'only' on of the all other respects, a financial bill (I) is governed by legislative procedure appl

4. #364Full-length test
   With reference to Indian parliamentary procedures, which of the following statements is correct?
   • AZero Hour is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure of the House but not in the Constitution. { }
   • BA member can seek information in the Parliament about matters that are under adjudication before courts
   • CStarred questions, because of its importance are answered in written form on the floor of the House
   • DThere is no Question Hour scheduled in the Parliament on the day Finance Minister presents the Annual Financial statement
   Answer: (D) There is no Question Hour scheduled in the Parliament on the day Finance Minister presents the Annual Financial statement
   Explanation

   Option d is the correct l l i { Option a is incorrect. Zero Hour is an Indian parliamentary innovation. The phrase does not find mention in the rules of procedure as well as the Constitution. The concept of Zero Hour started organically in the first decade of Indian Parliament, when members felt the need for raising important constituency and national issues. Option bis incorrect. Parliamentary rules provide guidelines on the kind of matters that can be asked by Members of Parliament. It should be limited to 150 words. It should also be related to an area of responsibility of the Government of India. They should not seek information about matters that are secret or are under adjudication before courts. It is the presiding officers of the two Houses who finally decide whether a matter raised by an MP will be admitted for answering by the government. Option c is incorrect. A starred questi

5. #365Full-length test
   The function of General Putposes Committee is to
   • Aregulates the programme and timetable of the House
   • Bconsider the matters of procedure and conduct of business in the House
   • Cconsider and advise on mattens. concerning affairs of the House,.which do not fall within the jurisdiction of any other parliamentary committee
   • Dexamine the assurances, promises and undertakings given by ministers from time to time on the floor of the House
   Answer: (C) consider and advise on mattens. concerning affairs of the House,.which do not fall within the jurisdiction of any other parliamentary committee
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct answer. Broadly, parliamentary committees are of two kinds- Standing Committees and Ad Hoc Committees. The former is permanent (constituted every year or periodically) and work on a continuous basis, while the latter are temporary and cease to exist on completion of the task assigned to them. The General Purposes Committee is a standing committee. Option a is incorrect: Business Advisory Committee regulates the programme and timetable of the House. It allocates time for the transaction of legislative and other business brought before the House by the government. Option b is incorrect: Rules Committee considers the matters of procedure and conduct of business in the House and recommends necessary amendments or additions to the rules of the { c is correct: General Purposes Committee advises on matters concerning affairs of the do not fall within the jurisdiction of

6. #366Full-length test
   Unlike the United Kingdom (UK), India does not follow the practice of Parliament Sovereignty, which of the following is the most appropriate reason for this? India follows
   • AConstitutional Supremacy
   • BJudicial Supremacy
   • CRepublic form of government
   • DFederal form of Government
   Answer: (A) Constitutional Supremacy
   Explanation

   Option a is the correct Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) is set up oy for a special purpose, like for the of a subject or 1 is correct: A Joint Parliamentary is an ad-hoc body. It is set up for a specific object The details regarding membership and decided by 2 is incorrect: A JPC is set up after one Ho.use has passed a motion and the other has agreed Members of the JPC are decided by the Parliament. of members can vary - is no fixed 3 is incorrect: While the recommendations JPC have persuasive value, they are not binding on The government can choose to launch based on what the JPC has it can't be forced to do so. The government is report on the follow-up action taken on the basis of of the JPC and other committees

7. #367Full-length test
   Consider the following statements regarding 'No-Confidence Motion in Indian Parliamentary System': 1. It is not necessary for the No-Confidence motion to state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok Sabha. 2. The motion needs the support of at least 100 members before it can be introduced in the Lok Sabha. 3. It is moved against the entire Council of Ministers and not against individual ministers or private members. 4. No Union government in India has lost any No-Confidence Motion so far.How many of the above given statements are correct?
   • AOnly one
   • BOnly two
   • COnly three
   • DAll four
   Answer: (B) Only two
   Explanation

   Option b is the correct Article 75 (3), the Council of Ministers is to Lok Sabha and it remains in office till it of majority of the members in Lok Sabha. Thus, of no-confidence is moved to remove the council and thus oust the government from 1 is correct: A motion of no-confidence state the reasons for its adoption in the Lok 2 is incorrect: Article 118 of the each house of Parliament to make its own rules of business. Rule 198 of the Lok Sabha specifies for a motion of no-confidence. Any member a written notice before 10 am; the Speaker will motion of no-confidence in the House and ask all the motion to rise. If there are 50 MPs in Speaker could allot a date for discussing the but this has to be within 10 days. The motion needs of 50 members to be 3 is correct: No Confidence Motion is the entire Council of Ministers including the and not individual ministers or private 4 incorrect: In

8. #368Full-length test
   The Parliament may by law provide for creation for one or more All India Services if a resolution to that effect is passed by
   • ABoth the Houses by a majority of two thirds of the members present and voting
   • BRajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two thirds of its total membership
   • CRajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two thirds of its members present and voting
   • DRajya Sabha by an absolute majority of its total membership
   Answer: (C) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two thirds of its members present and voting
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct per Article 312 of the Constitution of India, if the States has declared by resolution supported by not two thirds of the members present and voting that necessary or expedient in the national interest so to may by law provide for the creation of one all India services

9. #369Full-length test
   With reference to Parliamentary proceedings in India, which one of the following statements is incorrect?
   • AAdjournment terminates a sitting of the house for a specified time
   • BProrogation by the President of India not only terminates a sitting but also a session of the House
   • CThe power to terminate a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period lies with the President of India only
   • DPresident of India is authorised to dissolve the Lok Sabha and not the Rajya Sabha 1 rnmlll
   Answer: (D) President of India is authorised to dissolve the Lok Sabha and not the Rajya Sabha 1 rnmlll
   Explanation

   Option d is the correct 47 in the Indian Constitution: The State the raising of the level of nutrition and the living of its people and the improvement of public among its primary duties and, in particular, the State to bring about prohibition of the for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks drugs which are injurious to health. All the fulfils article 47 as they are raising the level raising standard of life of common people public health of people of 1 is correct: The Integrated Child (ICDS) Scheme providing for immunization and pre-school education. to provide for an integrated packag.e of services holistic development of the child. ICDS is a scheme implemented by state governments 2 is correct: Ayushman Bharat scheme aims public health. Ayushman Bharat is National Scheme, which will cover over 10 crore poor families (approximately 50 crore coverage upto 5 lakh rupees per family pe

10. #370Full-length test
    Which of the following statements regarding rights of Union and state are correct? 1. Both Parliament and State Legislature can make laws for compulsory acquisition of property. 2. The State government has exclusive authority over minerals found in territorial Sea Waters of India. 3. The Union Government can be sued for the torts committed by its officials. 4. The Union Government has power to appoint a custodian for enemy property within India.Select the correct answer using the codes given below
    • A1, 3 and 4 only
    • B1 and 4 only
    • C1, 2 and 4 only
    • D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer: (A) 1, 3 and 4 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct 1 is correct. Article enables the state to on the right to property by law. That law be reasonable. The legislation providing for property under Article must be just, fair Article gets attracted to an taking possession of private property, by for puplic purpose, in accordance with the by Parliament or a State Legislature, a rule or order having force of 2 is incorrect. In the federal structure the State Governments. are the owners of within their respective boundaries. The is the owner of the minerals ocean within the territorial waters or the Zone of 3 is correct. The government cannot be sued (civil wrong) in. respect of its sovereign it can be sued for torts committed by its exercising non-sovereign 4 is correct. In the wake of the of 1965 and 1971, there was migration of people to Pakistan. Under the Defence of India Rules The Defence of India Act, 1962, the G

11. #371Full-length test
    Consider the following statements with reference to the Inter-State River Water Disputes:88. 1. The Constitution explicitly prohibits the Supreme Court from having jurisdiction over the Inter-State Water disputes. 2. Water storage and drainage come under the State List of Schedule Seven of the Constitution. 3. A River Board can be established by the Central government at the request of the state governments. 4. The Government has set up a Disputes Resolution Committee as a single tribunal for the resolution of all river water disputes.How many of the above given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll four
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct 1 is incorrect: The Constitution does prohibit the Supreme Court or any Rather as per Article 262, it only provides Parliament can by law prohibit any court to in the case of inter-state water 2 is correct: Entry 17 of State List deals i.e. water supply, irrigation, canal, water storage and water power. The Inter-state water dispute can lead to an impact om 3 is correct: From the powers given under die Parliament has enacted two laws the River (1956) and the Inter-State Water Disputes Act River Boards Act provides for the establishment boards for the regulation and development of interstate river and river valleys. A river board is the Central government on the request of the concerned to advise 4 is incorrect: The Government has not yet set Disputes Resolution Committee as a permanent resolution of all river water disputes

More Polity topics