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Emergency & Amendments — UPSC Prelims Polity previous year questions

20 free solved previous year questions on Emergency & Amendments, papers from 1995 to 2025, drawn from UPSC CSE Prelims, State PCS, UPSC CDS, covering statement-based, direct, match and assertion questions. Every answer key has been checked again against published sources and solved independently, and each explanation is written fresh.

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  1. #1UPSC CSE 2025
    Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:I. List I–Union List, in the Seventh ScheduleII. Extent of the executive power of a StateIII. Conditions of the Governor's officeFor a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
    • AI and II only
    • BII and III only
    • CI and III only
    • DI, II and III
    Answer: (A) I and II only
    Explanation

    Items I and II need ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures. Item III does not.
    Article 368(2) lists the matters that need ratification.
    Item I is covered. Changes to any of the three Lists in the Seventh Schedule need ratification.
    Item II is covered. The extent of the executive power of a State (Article 162) needs ratification.
    Item III is not covered. Changing the conditions of the Governor's office needs only a special majority in Parliament.
    So I and II only are correct.
    Remember: Federal matters need ratification by half of the States, as listed in Article 368(2).

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 368(2) proviso and Art. 162

  2. #2UPSC CSE 2024
    As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:1. Addition2. Variation3. RepealSelect the correct answer using the code given below:
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B2 and 3 only
    • C1 and 3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3
    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
    Explanation

    Article 368(1) gives Parliament power to amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision. All three methods are named in the Article.
    So options that leave out any one of them are wrong. Parliament uses this power within the limits of the Basic Structure.
    Remember: Kesavananda Bharati (1973) held that amendments cannot destroy the basic structure.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 368

  3. #3UPSC CSE 2022
    Consider the following statements:1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.Which of the statements given above are correct?
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B2 and 3 only
    • C1 and 3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3
    Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Statement 1 is incorrect. A Constitution Amendment Bill can be introduced by a Minister or a private member without the President's prior recommendation.
    Statement 2 is correct. The 24th Amendment, 1971 made Presidential assent compulsory in Article 368(2).
    Statement 3 is correct. Each House must pass it by a special majority. A joint sitting is not allowed for such Bills.
    So 2 and 3 only are correct.
    Remember: Article 368 sets out the amendment procedure.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 368

  4. #4UPSC CSE 2018
    If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular state, then
    • Athe Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
    • Bthe powers of the Legislature of that state shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
    • CArticle 19 is suspended in that State.
    • Dthe President can make laws relating to that state.
    Answer: (B) the powers of the Legislature of that state shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
    Explanation

    Under Article 356(1)(b), the powers of the State Legislature become exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament.
    The Assembly is not automatically dissolved. It may be kept in suspended animation.
    Article 19 is suspended only under Article 358, during a National Emergency.
    The President cannot himself make laws for the state. Parliament makes them, though the President may make regulations when Parliament is not in session.
    Remember: President's Rule needs parliamentary approval within two months.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 356

  5. #5UPSC CSE 2017
    Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State?1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State3. Dissolution of the local bodiesSelect the correct answer using the code given below:
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B1 and 3 only
    • C2 and 3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3
    Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Statement 1 is not necessarily a consequence. The Assembly may be kept in suspended animation instead of being dissolved.
    Statement 2 is a consequence. The President removes the Council of Ministers and the Governor runs the State.
    Statement 3 is not a consequence. Local bodies keep working because the 73rd and 74th Amendments protect them.
    So 1 and 3 are not necessarily consequences.
    Remember: Article 356 deals with President's Rule.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 356

  6. #6UPSC CSE 2007
    Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India:1. A Proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless, before the expiration of that period, it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.2. If any Proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but excluding the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (A) 1 only
    Explanation

    Statement 1 is correct. Article 360(2)(a) requires approval of both Houses within two months.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 360(4)(a)(ii) allows salary reduction for all or any class of persons serving the Union.
    Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are expressly included in this class.
    So the words 'excluding the Judges' make the statement wrong.
    Remember: No financial emergency has been declared in India so far.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 360

  7. #7UPSC CSE 2005
    Consider the following statements:1. Article 371-A to 371-I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.2. Constitution of India and the United States of America envisage a dual polity (The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.3. A Naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1, 2 and 3
    • B1 and 3 only
    • C3 only
    • D1 only
    Answer: (D) 1 only
    Explanation

    Statement 1 is correct. Articles 371A to 371I give special provisions to Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh and Goa.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. India has single citizenship. The USA has dual citizenship, of the Union and of the State.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. Under Section 10 of the Citizenship Act 1955, a naturalised citizen can be deprived of citizenship, for example if it was obtained by fraud.
    So only statement 1 is correct.
    Remember: Article 371A was added in 1962 for Nagaland.

    Source: Previous year paper; answer key cross-checked against published sources

  8. #8UPSC CSE 2003
    Which of the following Constitutional Amendments is related to raising the number of Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States?
    • A6th and 22nd
    • B13th and 38th
    • C7th and 31st
    • D11th and 42nd
    Answer: (C) 7th and 31st
    Explanation

    The 7th Amendment (1956) fixed the maximum elected strength from the States at 500.
    The 31st Amendment (1973) raised it to 525.
    The other pairs deal with different subjects, such as Union territories, language and the Preamble.
    Remember: The present limit is 530 from States and 20 from Union Territories.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 81; 7th and 31st Amendments

  9. #9UPSC CSE 2002
    Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers?
    • A39th
    • B40th
    • C42nd
    • D44th
    Answer: (D) 44th
    Explanation

    The 44th Amendment (1978) added a proviso to Article 74(1).
    It allows the President to ask the Council of Ministers to reconsider its advice once.
    After reconsideration, the President must act on the advice given.
    The 42nd Amendment had made the President bound by the advice. The 44th softened this.
    The 39th and 40th Amendments do not deal with this.
    Remember: The President can return advice once, but cannot reject it the second time.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 74(1) proviso; 44th Amendment Act, 1978

  10. #10UPSC CSE 2002
    The term of the Lok Sabha:
    • ACannot be extended under any circumstances
    • BCan be extended by six months at a time
    • CCan be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
    • DCan be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency
    Answer: (C) Can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
    Explanation

    Art. 83(2) fixes the Lok Sabha's term at five years.
    During a proclamation of Emergency, Parliament may extend it by law for one year at a time. The extension cannot go beyond six months after the Emergency ends.
    It can be extended in this way, so the first option is wrong.
    The six-month option and the two-year option are not in the Constitution.
    Remember: The Lok Sabha's term was extended in 1976 under the 42nd Amendment.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 83(2)

  11. #11UPSC CSE 1999
    An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the:1. Lok Sabha2. Rajya Sabha3. State Legislatures4. PresidentSelect the correct answer using the code given below:
    • A1 only
    • B1, 2 and 3
    • C2, 3 and 4
    • D1 and 2
    Answer: (D) 1 and 2
    Explanation

    Article 368 says an amendment Bill can be introduced only in either House of Parliament.
    So the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha can initiate it. Statement 1 and 2 are correct.
    State legislatures cannot introduce amendment Bills. Statement 3 is incorrect.
    The President cannot initiate one. The President only gives assent. Statement 4 is incorrect.
    Remember: No special convention or joint sitting is allowed for constitutional amendment Bills.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 368

  12. #12UPSC CSE 1997
    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):Assertion (A): The reservation of thirty-three percent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislature does not require a Constitutional amendment.Reason (R): Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three percent of seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment.In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?
    • ABoth (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    • BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
    • C(A) is true but, (R) is false.
    • D(A) is false hut, (R) is true.
    Answer: (D) (A) is false hut, (R) is true.
    Explanation

    Assertion (A) is false. Reserving seats in Parliament and State Legislatures needs a Constitutional amendment, because Articles 81, 170, 330 and 332 fix seat reservations.
    Reason (R) is true. Parties may voluntarily give a share of their tickets to women without any amendment.
    So (A) is false but (R) is true.
    Update (2026): The 106th Amendment (2023) inserted Articles 330A and 332A for 33% women's reservation. It applies after delimitation based on the first Census after its commencement.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 330, 332; Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023

  13. #13UPSC CSE 1995
    Which of the following are the matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only with the ratification of the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States?1. Election of the President2. Representation of the States in Parliament3. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule4. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a StateCode:
    • A1, 2 and 3
    • B1, 2 and 4
    • C1, 3 and 4
    • D2, 3 and 4
    Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
    Explanation

    Article 368(2) proviso lists matters needing ratification by half of the States.
    Statement 1 is correct. Election of the President (Articles 54, 55) is covered.
    Statement 2 is correct. Representation of States in Parliament is covered.
    Statement 3 is correct. Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule is covered.
    Statement 4 is incorrect. Abolition of a Legislative Council is done under Article 169 by a simple law of Parliament, with no ratification.
    Remember: Federal features need ratification by half of the State legislatures.

    Source: Constitution of India, Arts. 368, 169

  14. #14UPSC CDS 2022 (I)
    Which one of the following is not mentioned as a form of Emergency in the Constitution of India?
    • ANational Emergency
    • BState Emergency in terms of Proclamation of President's Rule in a State
    • CFinancial Emergency
    • DHealth Emergency 157. Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India, as it stands amended, includes which of the following? 1. Freedom of speech and expression 2. Assemble peaceably and without arms
    Answer: (D) Health Emergency 157. Article 19(1) of the Constitution of India, as it stands amended, includes which of the following? 1. Freedom of speech and expression 2. Assemble peaceably and without arms
    Explanation

    The Constitution provides three forms of Emergency. These are the National Emergency (Article 352), the State Emergency or President's Rule (Article 356), and the Financial Emergency (Article 360).
    There is no provision for a Health Emergency in the Constitution.
    Remember: No Financial Emergency has been declared so far.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 352, 356 and 360

  15. #15UPSC CDS 2022 (I)
    Which one of the following statements about a Bill for Amendment of the Constitution of India is not correct?
    • AIt is governed by Article 368(2) of the Constitution of India.
    • BJoint sitting can be resorted to for passing a Bill amending the Constitution of India.
    • CThe State Legislatures cannot initiate any Bill or proposal for amendment of the Constitution of India.
    • DThe previous sanction of the President of India is not required for introducing any Bill in the Parliament for amendment of the Constitution of India.
    Answer: (B) Joint sitting can be resorted to for passing a Bill amending the Constitution of India.
    Explanation

    Statement 2 is incorrect. A joint sitting under Article 108 is only for ordinary Bills. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by each House separately.
    Option 1 is correct as Article 368(2) lays down the procedure. Option 3 is correct as only Parliament can initiate an amendment. Option 4 is correct as no prior sanction of the President is needed to introduce the Bill.
    Remember: Ratification by half of the State legislatures is needed only for federal features.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 368 and 108

  16. #16UPSC CDS 2021 (II)
    Which one of the following is not a circumstance for proclamation of Emergency by the President of India under Article 352 of the Constitution of India?
    • AWar
    • BExternal aggression
    • CInternal disturbance
    • DArmed rebellion
    Answer: (C) Internal disturbance
    Explanation

    After the 44th Amendment, 1978, Article 352 allows a National Emergency on grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion.
    The earlier ground 'internal disturbance' was removed. So internal disturbance is not a valid ground now.
    Remember: The President acts only on the written advice of the Union Cabinet.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 352; Constitution (44th Amendment) Act, 1978

  17. #17UPPCS 2017
    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:List-IA. Curtailment of the power of judicial reviewB. Abolition of Right to property as a Fundamental RightC. Lowering the voting age from 21 to 18D. Addition of the word 'Secular' in the PreambleList-II1. 61st Amendment2. 42nd Amendment3. 38th Amendment4. 44th AmendmentCode:
    • AA-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
    • BA-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
    • CA-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
    • DA-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
    Answer: (C) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
    Explanation

    A matches 3. The 38th Amendment (1975) put the President's emergency declaration beyond judicial review.
    B matches 4. The 44th Amendment (1978) removed property from Fundamental Rights.
    C matches 1. The 61st Amendment (1988) lowered the voting age.
    D matches 2. The 42nd Amendment (1976) added 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' to the Preamble.
    So the correct code is 3-4-1-2.
    Remember: The 44th Amendment later restored judicial review of Emergency.

    Source: Constitution of India; 38th, 42nd, 44th and 61st Amendment Acts

  18. #18UPPCS 2016
    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:List-IA. Constitutional AmendmentsB. Finance CommissionC. Financial EmergencyD. All India ServicesList-II1. Article 3602. Article 3123. Article 2804. Article 368Code:A B C D
    • A2 3 4 1
    • B4 3 1 2
    • C3 4 1 2
    • D1 2 3 4
    Answer: (B) 4 3 1 2
    Explanation

    Constitutional amendments are made under Article 368. So A matches 4.
    The Finance Commission is set up under Article 280. So B matches 3.
    Financial Emergency is declared under Article 360. So C matches 1.
    All India Services are created under Article 312. So D matches 2.
    The correct code is 4 3 1 2.
    Remember: Financial Emergency has never been declared in India.

    Source: Constitution of India, Arts. 280, 312, 360, 368

  19. #19RAS/RTS 2013 (Re-Exam)
    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:List-I (Provision)A. Right to form cooperative societies under Article 19(1)(c)B. Protection of SC/ST reservation in filling backlog of vacanciesC. Formation of National Judicial Appointments CommissionD. Limiting the size of the Council of MinistersList-II (Constitutional Amendment)1. 81st Amendment, 20002. 91st Amendment, 20033. 97th Amendment, 20114. 99th Amendment, 2014Code:A B C D
    • A3 2 4 1
    • B1 4 2 3
    • C3 1 4 2
    • D2 3 1 4
    Answer: (C) 3 1 4 2
    Explanation

    A matches 3. The 97th Amendment, 2011 made forming cooperative societies a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(c).
    B matches 1. The 81st Amendment, 2000 allowed carrying forward of unfilled SC/ST reserved vacancies (Article 16(4B)).
    C matches 4. The 99th Amendment, 2014 created the National Judicial Appointments Commission. The Supreme Court struck it down in 2015.
    D matches 2. The 91st Amendment, 2003 limited the Council of Ministers to 15 percent of the House.
    So the code is 3 1 4 2.
    Remember: The 91st Amendment also tightened the anti-defection law.

    Source: Constitution of India: Articles 16(4B), 19(1)(c), 75(1A), 164(1A); 81st, 91st, 97th, 99th Amendment Acts

  20. #20RAS/RTS 2013
    Consider the following statements regarding Article 356 of the Constitution:(i) Failure of Constitutional machinery in States is an objective reality.(ii) A Proclamation under this Article can be reviewed by the Supreme Court.(iii) Along with this Proclamation, the State Legislative Assembly can be dissolved.(iv) This Proclamation has to be approved by each House of Parliament within two months.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A(i), (ii) and (iv) only
    • B(i), (ii) and (iii) only
    • C(iii) and (iv) only
    • D(ii), (iii) and (iv) only
    Answer: (A) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
    Explanation

    Statement (i) is accepted as correct. The President's satisfaction must rest on real material showing failure of constitutional machinery.
    Statement (ii) is correct. In S.R. Bommai (1994), the Supreme Court held the Proclamation is open to judicial review.
    Statement (iii) is incorrect. Bommai held the Assembly cannot be dissolved until Parliament approves the Proclamation. Until then it can only be suspended.
    Statement (iv) is correct. Article 356(3) needs approval of both Houses within two months.
    Remember: Maximum duration is three years with periodic approval.

    Source: Constitution of India: Article 356; S.R. Bommai v Union of India (1994)

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