UPSC Prelims PYQ › Polity › Judiciary

Judiciary — UPSC Prelims Polity previous year questions

201 solved previous year questions on Judiciary, papers from 1995 to 2023, drawn from UPPCS, UPSC CSE Prelims, UPSC CDS. Each carries the printed answer key and the explanation from the source compilation.

1. #1UPPCS 2017
   Coelho case is related to which Schedule of the Constitution of India?
   • ASeventh
   • BEight
   • CNinth
   • DTenth
   Answer: (C) Ninth
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct Ines Ribeiro Coelho (Dead) By L.Rs. vs. State Nadu and Others on 11 January 2007, the Court held that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule Constitution are not immune to judicial review. Court held that the Kerala Land Reforms Act immune to judicial review, and that it could be if it was found to be unconstitutional

2. #2UPPCS 2014
   Who was the Constitution Advisor at the time of the formation of the Constitution?
   • ADr. B. R. Ambedkar
   • BDr. Rajendra Prasad
   • CB. N. Rau
   • DK. M. Munshi
   Answer: (C) B. N. Rau
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct N. Rau was a jurist and a civil servant who was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent 1946. He prepared the initial draft of the on the recommendations of various committees study of other constitutions. He also consulted and scholars such as Sir Ivor Jennings, Sir Iyer, and K. M. Munshi for their suggestions. He played a vital role in shaping of India and was later appointed as a judge International Court of Justice in The Hague

3. #3UPSC CDS 2019
   Which of the following statements about Alladi Krishna.swami Ayyar, as a drafting member of the Constitution of India, are correct? 1. He favoured the role of the Supreme Court in taking important decisions related to the interpretation of the Constitution of India. 2. He felt that the Supreme Court had to draw the line between liberty and social control. 3. He believed in the dominance of the executive over the judiciary 4. He favoured a dictatorial form of governance.Select the correct answer using the codes given below
   • A1 and 2
   • B1, 2 and 3
   • C3 and 4
   • D1.2 and 4
   Answer: (A) 1 and 2
   Explanation

   Option a is the correct answer. The doctrine of independence is not to be raised to the level of a dogma so as to enable the judiciary to function as a kind of super-legislature or super-executive. The judiciary is there to interpret the Constitution or adjudicate upon the rights. Option 1 is correct. It is the great tribunal which has to draw the line between liberty and social control. Option 2 is correct

4. #4UPSC CDS 2016
   The right to form association and unions is a right
   • Aguaranteed to everybody
   • Bto freedom guaranteed to citizens only
   • Cto equality before law
   • Dto life and personal liberty
   Answer: (B) to freedom guaranteed to citizens only
   Explanation

   Option b is the correct (c) Right to Form citizens have right to form associations or unions or societies (Included through 97th to reasonable restrictions on grounds of integrity of India, public order and right to obtain recognition of the association is fundamental view of Supreme Court, Right to strike is a statutory by industrial laws) and not a fundamental states that the State may impose on this right in the interest of public sovereignty and integrity of 21 No person shall be deprived of his life or except according to procedure established by law

5. #5UPSC CDS 2016
   The bask structure doctrine with regard to the Constitution of India relates to the power of judicial review. 2. the judgement in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). 3. the constraints on Article-368 of the Constitution of India. llllr the judgement in Golaknath case (1967). Which of the given above is/are correct?
   • A1, 2 and 3
   • B2 and 4
   • C1 and 3
   • DAll of these
   Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
   Explanation

   Option a is the correct answer The basic structure doctrine was given in the of Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala basic structure doctrine states that the India has certain basic features that cannot be altered through amendments by The Supreme Court can undertake judicial review for Supreme Court declared that Article 368 did not to alter the basic structure or framework of and Parliament could not use its under Article 368 alter the basic structure of Thus, statement 3 is the Golaknath case, the supreme court ruled couldn't curtail any of the (this case is not related to basic structure of statement 4 is incorrect

6. #6UPSC CSE Prelims 2021
   Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
   • AThe independence of judiciary is safeguarded
   • BThe Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units
   • CThe Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties
   • DThe Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law
   Answer: (A) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded
   Explanation

   Option a is the correct establishment of an independent judiciary the federal character of Indian polity. establishes an independent judiciary the Supreme Court to settle the disputes between and the states or between the states. This helps the separate jurisdiction and authority of Centre and the States. Important Tips Following are the federal features of Indian Constitution: Dual polity consisting of the Union at the Centre and the states at the periphery. Written Constitution Division of powers between the Centre and the states (by Schedule VII) Supremacy of the Constitution Rigidity of the constitution Bicameral legislature consisting of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha In dependency of judiciary

7. #7UPPCS 2006
   Sarkaria Commission was set up to review
   • AThe relations between the President and the Prime Minister
   • BThe relations between the Legislature and the Executive
   • CThe relations between the Executive and the Judiciary
   • DThe relations between the Union and the States
   Answer: (D) The relations between the Union and the States
   Explanation

   Option d is the correct Sarkaria Commission, established in J983, aimed the state-center relationship in India and changes. Headed by Rajinder Singh Sarkaria, Supreme Court judge, it submitted a report with 247 specific recommendations

8. #8State PCS 1995
   Main agency to resolve the fiscal disputes between the Centre and States is
   • ASupreme Court
   • BLaw Minister
   • CFinance Minister
   • DFinance Commission
   Answer: (A) Supreme Court
   Explanation

   Option a is the correct Supreme Court of India holds original jurisdiction, Article 131 of the Indian Constitution, to resolve between the Government of India and one or between the Government of India and any other and between two or more states

9. #9UPSC CSE Prelims 2022
   Consider the following statements:l. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. rn _ X 2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. 3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   • A1 and 2 only
   • B1, 2 and 4
   • C3 and 4 only
   • D3 only to India
   Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4
   Explanation

   Option b is the correct 1 is correct: A committee was set up in the chairmanship of the late H N Sanyal, additional solicitor general. The committee comprehensive examination of the law and to contempt of court in the light of the in our own country and various foreign countries. Pursuant to the recommendations made by the H N the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was 2 is correct: The Supreme Court and the of India have been empowered with the power for Contempt of Court under Articles 129 and the Constitution of 3 is incorrect: The Constitution of India define Civil Contempt and/or Criminal 4 is correct: Article 142 (2) of the clearly states that "subject to the provisions law made on this behalf by Parliament" the shall have all and every power to make any order on of any contempt of itself. Thus, the vested with powers to make laws on Contempt of Court

10. #10UPSC CSE Prelims 2020
    Consider the following statements: 1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of Indian cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. 3. The process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India is given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. 4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B3 only
    • C3 and 4 only
    • D1, 3 and 4 only
    Answer: (C) 3 and 4 only
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct l is incorrect. According to provisions of Act, 1968, the motion to impeach a judge of Court of India can be rejected by the Speaker Lok 2 is incorrect. The Constitution of India define or give details of what constitutes 'incapacity misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court 3 is correct. The Judges Enquiry Act the procedure relating to the removal of a judge Supreme Court by the process of impeachment. It a removal motion signed by 100 members (in the case Sabha) or 50 members (in the case of Rajya Sabha) is given to the Speaker/ 4 is correct. If the motion for the a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the be backed by each House of the Parliament and a majority of total membership of that House and by than two-thirds of total members of that House voting. After the motion is passed by each House an address is presented to the president of the j

11. #11UPSC CSE Prelims 2020
    Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India defines its 'Basic Structure' in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy. 2. The Constitution of India provides for 'Judicial review' to safeguard the citizens' liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.Which of the statements given above is are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct l is incorrect. The basic structure doctrine is by the Constitution. It is rather a judicial came through Kesavananda Bharati vs State of (1973). Supreme Court said that the Constitution has certain basic features that cannot be altered through the provisions of amendment, by of India, as mentioned in the Constitution 2 is incorrect. The term judicial review is explicitly anywhere in the Indian Article 13 of the Constitution empowers the review any law in India and strike it down if it Constitutional provisions, especially Part Rights), thus providing the power of I. Solution: Option a is the correct National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has under the Legal Services Authorities Act, provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of and to organize Lok Adalats for amicable Income Ceiling Limit prescribed under Section the Act for availing free legal service

12. #12UPSC CSE Prelims 2019
    With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid. 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.Which of the statements give above is/ are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct 1 is incorrect. With the power of judicial Courts can strike down State law as well as Though the phrase 'judicial review' has no where in the Constitution, the provisions of Articles 13 explicitly confer the power of judicial review on a 2 is incorrect. The Supreme Court in case ( 1973) held that Constitutional amendment challenged on the ground that it violates a that forms a part of the 'basic structure' of and hence, can be declared as void. it stands the constitutional amendment comes under a judicial review if it violates any fundamental rights structure of our constitution

13. #13UPSC CSE Prelims 2019
    Consider the following statements: 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (B) 2 only
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct 1 is incorrect. The 44 th Amendment to of India had no provision placing the election Prime Minister beyond judicial review. 44 th the Constitution of India was enacted to nullify some amendments made by the 42 nd Amendment Act, 2 is correct. 99th Constitutional 2014 was enacted to reflect the change in the system of Judges from the collegium system. It establish the National Judicial Appointment (NJAC). This was struck down by the Supreme Court violative of the independence of judiciary

14. #14UPSC CSE Prelims 2015
    Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?
    • AThe President of India
    • BThe Prime Minister of India
    • CThe Lok Sabha Secretariat
    • DThe Supreme Court of India
    Answer: (B) The Prime Minister of India
    Explanation

    Option bis the correct is as d quasi-federal state as described K.C. India as a quasi federal state strong central In a Quasi federal of powers between the Center and the not equal. Hence, Assertion (A) is Constitution establishes an independent by the Supreme Court. It protects the the Constitution by exercising the power of Independent judiciary also checks arbitrary use by executives. Hence, Reason (R) is Assertion reflects that India has unitary features and Reason is talking about the federal feature of So both are true but R is not the reason of both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the of (A)

15. #15UPSC CSE Prelims 2012
    What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India? 1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India. 2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only. 3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote. 4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 and 3 only
    • B3 and 4 only
    • C4 only
    • D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct l is correct. The judges of the Supreme appointed by the President in consultation with Justice of India. This provision curtails the of the executive as well as ensures that the are not based on any political or 2 is incorrect. A judge of the Supreme be removed from his Office by an order of The President can issue the removal order an address by Parliament has been presented to the same session for such removal. The address must by a special majority of each House of Parliament. Statement 3 is correct. The salaries, allowances of the judges and the staff as well as all expenses of the Supreme Court are the Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, they are non votable by the Parliament (though they can be discussed 4 is incorrect. All appointments of officers of the Supreme Court of India are made by the of India. To maintain the independence of the Chief Justice of Ind

16. #16UPSC CSE Prelims 2012
    How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one State (Union Territories not included)?
    • A2
    • B3
    • C4
    • D5
    Answer: (B) 3
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct are 21 High Courts in the country, out of these 3 over more than one 1 Bombay High Court has the jurisdiction over Maharasthra, Goa, Dada and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu. Guwahati High Court, which was earlier known as Assam High Court, has the jurisdiction over Assam, Nagaland, Mizoram and Arunachal Pradesh. Punjab and Haryana High Court has the jurisdiction over Punjab, Haryana and Chandigarh

17. #17UPSC CSE Prelims 2009
    A Constitution (Amendment) Act may be declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court of India if it
    • AEstablishes three-tier federal set up in place of the existing two tier-set up
    • BRemoves Right of Equality before the law from Part and places it elsewhere in the Constitution
    • CReplaces Parliamentary System of Executive with the Presidential one
    • DEstablishes a Federal Court of Appeal to lighten the burden of the Supreme Court
    Answer: (B) Removes Right of Equality before the law from Part and places it elsewhere in the Constitution
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct to equality forms part of basic structure of per Keshavananda Bharati case basic structure cannot be amended. Hence removing Right from part and placing it elsewhere in be declared as unconstitutional by Supreme Court

18. #18UPSC CSE Prelims 2008
    Consider the following statements: 1. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India. 2. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer is considered as one of the progenitors of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in the Indian Judicial System.Which of the given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (B) 2 only
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct V. R. Krishna Iyer was a judge and Minister the Indian criminal justice system. He for the poor and the underprivileged, and remained rights champion, a crusader for social justice environment, and a doyen of civil liberties, life. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer and Justice P.N. considered the pioneer/ progenitors of Public (PIL)

19. #19UPSC CSE Prelims 2005
    Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its Jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by the Constitution. 2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by the concerned Chief Justice, and the administrative expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct 1 is incorrect: Under Article 138 of of India, the Parliament by law can enlarge and power of the Supreme Court on any the Union 2 is incorrect: As per Article 146 and of officers and servants of the and High Courts are made by their Justices. The conditions of service are rules made by the Chief Justices, with requiring the President's or Governor's administrative expenses of the Supreme Court on the Consolidated Fund of India, while expenses of High Courts are charged on Fund of states

20. #20UPSC CSE Prelims 1997
    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason Assertion (A): Willful disobedience or non -compliance of Court orders and use of derogatory language about Judicial behaviour amount to Contempt of Court. Reason Judicial activism cannot be practiced without arming the Judiciary with punitive powers to punish contemptuous behavior. In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?
    • ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    • BBoth (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    • C(A) is true but (R) is false
    • DA) is false but (R) is true
    Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct (A) is true- Willful disobedience or noncompliance of Court orders and use of derogatory Judicial behaviour amount to Contempt of Court. because contempt of court is any act that tends to interfere the administration of justice or to bring the dignity of the court into (R) is true- Judicial activism cannot be arming the Judiciary with punitive powers to behavior. This is because judicial activism practice of judges. taking an active role in law and issuing rulings that have a significant impact In order to be able to do this effectively, judges have the power to punish people who try to interfere administration of justice

21. #21UPSC CSE Prelims 1996
    According to the Constitution of India the term 'district judge' shall not include
    • AChief presidency magistrate
    • BSessions judges
    • CTribunal judge
    • DChief judge of a small cause court
    Answer: (C) Tribunal judge
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct per Article of the Constitution, the term includes various judicial positions, such as Judge city civil court, additional district judge, joint assistant district judge, chief judge of a court, chief presidency magistrate, additional magistrate, session judge, additional and assistant session judge. However, it does the position of a Tribunal Judge. Tribunal over specialized tribunals that deal with of law and are not part of the regular district judiciary Important Tips Articles 233-237 of the Indian Constitution pertain to the regulations governing subordinate courts

22. #22UPSC CSE Prelims 1996
    When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to
    • AThe writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court
    • BSpecial control exercised by the Chief Justice of India
    • CDiscretionary powers of the Governor of the state
    • DSpecial powers provided to the Chief Minister in this regard
    Answer: (A) The writ jurisdiction of any of the other judges of the High Court
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in capacity, he is subject to the writ any of the other judges of the High Court. This means any action taken by the Chief Justice in his is questioned, any other judge of the High their power of writ jurisdiction to review correct that action. Writ jurisdiction i judges to issue writs such as habeas corpus, prohibition, and quo warranto, which are safeguard the fundamental rights of citizens and to public authorities act within the bounds of law

23. #23State PCS 2014
    Curative Petition in India can he filed in Supreme Court under Artide
    • A138
    • B140
    • C142
    • D146
    Answer: (C) 142
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct 142 provides a unique power to the Supreme do "complete justice" between the parties, where, at law or statute may not provide a remedy. in India can be filed in the Supreme Court 142. It is a special remedy available after the dismissal, meant to correct errors or the judicial process, exercised in exceptional prevent abuse of process or miscarriage of justice

24. #24UPPCS 2014
    A Judge of the Supreme Court may resign his officeby writing a letter to
    • AThe Chief Justice
    • BThe President
    • CThe Prime Minister
    • DThe Law Minister
    Answer: (B) The President
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct Judge of the Supreme Court may resign his office a letter to the President of India, as per

25. #25UPPCS 2013
    Consider the following statements and state which one of them is correct?
    • ASupreme Court of India has only Or iginal Jurisdiction
    • BIt has only Or iginal and Appellate Jurisdiction
    • CIt has only Advisory and Appellate Jurisdiction
    • DIt has Or iginal, Appellate as well as Advisory Jurisdiction
    Answer: (D) It has Or iginal, Appellate as well as Advisory Jurisdiction
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct Supreme Court of India has three types of jurisdiction: Original Jurisdiction (Article 131): It can directly hear and decide disputes between the Government of India and one or more states, or between different states, involving questions of law or fact on the existence or extent of a legal right. Appellate Jurisdiction (Articles 132-134): It acts as the highest court of appeal, hearing appeals in civil, criminal, and constitutional matters from high courts and tribunals. Advisory Jurisdiction (Article 143): The President can seek the Supreme Court's advisory opinion on questions of law or public importance, which is not binding

26. #26UPPCS 2013
    Under which law is it prescribed that all proceedings in the Supreme Court of India shall be in English language?
    • AThe Supreme Court rules, 1966
    • BArticle 145 of the Constitution of India
    • CA Legislation made by Parliament
    • DArticle 348 of the Constitution of India
    Answer: (D) Article 348 of the Constitution of India
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct 348 (1) of the Constitution of India provides proceedings in the Supreme Court and every High be in the English Language until Parliament by provides. Important Tip Part XVII of the Indian Constitution deals with the official languages in Articles 343 to 351. Article 343 (1) states that the Official Language of the Union government shall be Hindi in Devanagari script. Article 351 gives power to the Union Government to issue a directive for the development of the Hindi language. The Hindi language is one of the 22 languages of the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India

27. #27UPPCS 2013
    The pension of a retired High Court Judge is charged to the
    • AConsolidated Fund of India
    • BConsolidated Fund of the State where he last served
    • CConsolidated Fund of the different States where he has served
    • DContingency Fund of India
    Answer: (A) Consolidated Fund of India
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct money to pay the salaries and allowances of Judges comes from the Consolidated Fund of where they serve. On the other hand, when retire and start receiving pensions, the money pensions comes from the Consolidated Fund of is managed by the central government. Important Tips Expenditures Charged on the Consolidated Fund of India

28. #28UPPCS 2012
    In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that, "Fundamental Rights enable a man to chalk out his life in the manner he likes best"?
    • AIndira Gandhi Vs. Raj Narain
    • BGolaknath Vs. The State of Punjab
    • CBank Nationalization Case
    • DAzhar Vs. Municipal Corporation
    Answer: (B) Golaknath Vs. The State of Punjab
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct the case of Golaknath v. State of Punjab Supreme Court of India held that enable a man to chalk out his life in the likes best:' This statement signifies the fundamental rights in providing individuals with and autonomy to live their lives according to choices and preferences. Important Tips Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain: Indira Gandhi's election to Lok Sabha was challenged by her opponent, Raj Narain, alleging electoral malpractices. The Allahabad High Court found her guilty and voided her election. The Supreme Court upheld her conviction. The verdict was nullified by a 1976 amendment during the emergency. Bank Nationalization Case: In R.C. Cooper Vs. Union of India (1970), the Supreme Court upheld the nationalization of banks by the government as constitutionally valid. It emphasized that economic policies are within the scope of parliamentary powers, as long as

29. #29UPPCS 2009
    Which Article of the Constitution permits the Supreme Court to review its judgement or order?
    • AArticle 137
    • BArticle 130
    • CArticle 139
    • DArticle 138
    Answer: (A) Article 137
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct 137 of the Indian Constitution permits Court to review its judgments or orders. It person aggrieved by a Supreme Court judgment a review of the same. The review petition is heard by bench of the Supreme Court, and it is based on such as the discovery of new and important evidence, a mistake or error apparent on the face of or any other sufficient reason

30. #30UPPCS 2008
    The Supreme Court of India is a 'Court of Record'. It implies that
    • AIt has to keep a record of its decisions
    • BAll its decisions have evidentiary value and cannot be questioned in any court
    • CIt has the power to punish for its contempt
    • DNo appeal can be made against its decisions
    Answer: (B) All its decisions have evidentiary value and cannot be questioned in any court
    Explanation

    Option bis the correct a 'Court of Record' under Article 129 of the the Supreme Court's decisions have evidentiary value, and can't in other courts. Nevertheless, the court and correct its judgments through Article its potential for errors

31. #31UPPCS 2008
    Which of the following Courts in India is/ are known as the Court (s) of Record?
    • AThe High Court's only
    • BThe Supreme Court only
    • CThe High Courts and the Supreme Court
    • DThe District Courts
    Answer: (C) The High Courts and the Supreme Court
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct Supreme Court and High Courts, as Courts of Articles 129 and 215 respectively, record and acts for perpetual memory. These evidentiary value, cannot be questioned in lower establish legal precedents. They also have the power for contempt

32. #32UPPCS 2008
    The Supreme Court holds its meetings in New Delhi, but it can meet elsewhere
    • AWith the approval of President
    • BIf most of the Judges of Supreme Court decide
    • CWith the approval of Parliament
    • DOn the request of State Legislature
    Answer: (A) With the approval of President
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct per Article 130 of the Indian Constitution, the of the Supreme Court's meetings is in New the Supreme Court has the flexibility to hold or sittings at any other place outside New the President of India approves it. This provision court to conduct its proceedings in other locations necessary or in special circumstances with permission

33. #33UPPCS 2008
    Salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are determined by
    • APay Commission appointed by the President
    • BLaw Commission
    • CParliament
    • DCouncil of Ministers
    Answer: (C) Parliament
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct 125 of the Indian Constitution states that the the Supreme Court shall be paid salaries as Parliament or specified in the Second Schedule until a enacted. Judges shall be entitled to privileges, and pension as determined by Parliament, or the Second Schedule and these benefits cannot be their disadvantage after appointment, except in case necessity. Important Tips

34. #34UPPCS 2004
    Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given: Assertion (A): High Courts are in better to protect rights of Indian citizens than the Supreme Court. R o.n Supreme Court can issue writs to protect Rights
    • ABoth (A) (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    • BBoth (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
    • C(A) is true but, (R) is false
    • D(A) is false but, (R) is true
    Answer: (A) Both (A) (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct is true- High Courts, being closer to the having jurisdiction over specific states or can more effectively address and protect of Indian citizens within their territorial can swiftly respond to local issues and ensure is accessible to the people in their respective (R) is true- The Supreme Court can only to protect fundamental rights under Article 32 of Constitution. However, High Courts can issue protect both fundamental rights and other under Article 226 of the Indian Constitution

35. #35UPSC CAPF 2021
    Which one of the following statements about the Supreme Court is not correct?
    • AUnder Article 129 and Article 144 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has been vested with power to punish for Contempt of court
    • BThe Supreme Court has been vested with advisory jurisdiction
    • CThe Supreme Court may refuse to provide opinion to the President, if so asked, in certain circumstances
    • DLaw declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the Territory of India
    Answer: (C) The Supreme Court may refuse to provide opinion to the President, if so asked, in certain circumstances
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct a is correct: Indian federalism grants powers the central government and the state state government has its own legislative and to govern their respective b is correct: The judiciary in India, Supreme Court, has the authority to interpret and determine the scope of powers of different levels of government. The as a neutral arbiter in resolving disputes between government and state c is incorrect: States are subordinate to Government: This statement is not a feature federalism. In Indian federalism, both the and state governments are sovereign in spheres of power. While the central certain powers and responsibilities that are the entire country, state governments also powers to govern their respective d is correct: Indian federalism entails a fiscal powers between the central government governments. While the Constitution provides for of revenue sources to each lev

36. #36UPSC CAPF 2018
    Which one of the following judgements is associated with the primacy of the Chief Justice of India and the Collegium of Judges in the appointment and transfer of the higher judiciary?
    • AKesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
    • BSP Gupta vs. President of India
    • CManeka Gandhi vs. Union of India
    • DSR Bommai vs. Union of India
    Answer: (B) SP Gupta vs. President of India
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct the SP Gupta vs. President of India case, which is as the First Judges' Case, the Supreme Court held that the "primacy" of the (Chief India) recommendation on judicial appointments can be refused for "cogent reasons." The the Executive primacy over the Judiciary in for the next 12 years. Important Tips

37. #37UPSC CAPF 2015
    The Locus Standi rule to move the court was liberalized by the case of?
    • ASR Bommai vs Union of India
    • BMinerva Mills vs Union of India
    • CSP Gupta vs Union of India
    • DKesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala
    Answer: (C) SP Gupta vs Union of India
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct locus standi rule to move the court was liberalized case of SP Gupta vs Union of India. This case is as the Judges' Transfer Case, as it dealt with the transfer of judges from one High Court to another by in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. Important Tip SR Bommai vs Union of India was a case that dealt with the constitutional validity of President's rule imposed under Article 356 in various states. The court laid down certain safeguards and limitations on the exercise of this power by the Centre and upheld the federal strncture of the Constitution. Minerva Mills vs Union of India was a case dealt with the constitutional validity of certain amendments made to Article and Article 368 by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. The court struck down these amendments as violative of the basic strncture doctrine and upheld the supremacy of judicial review and fundam

38. #38UPSC CDS 2023
    Who among the following Chief Justices India ordered the constitution of a Special Bench called 'Social Justice Bench'?
    • AJustice H. L. Dattu
    • BJustice K. G. Balakrishnan
    • CJustice R. M. Lodha
    • DJustice Y. K. Sabharwal
    Answer: (A) Justice H. L. Dattu
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct December 2014, when Justice HL Dattu was the of India (CJI), the Supreme Court had issued to set up a special Bench known as the Bench. The Social Justice Bench was established hear cases related to social justice issues. It expedite the hearing and disposal of cases pertaining such as gender inequality, child rights, environmental protection, and other

39. #39UPSC CDS 2021
    Article 231 of the Constitution of India grants power to establish a common High Court for two or more states to
    • Athe Parliament
    • Bthe Supreme Court
    • Cthe President of India
    • Dthe Union Cabinet
    Answer: (A) the Parliament
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct power to establish a common High Court is vested Parliament, under Article 231 of the Constitution

40. #40UPSC CDS 2020
    The power of the Supreme Court to decide in the case of a dispute between two or more States is called
    • Aor iginal jurisdiction
    • Binherent jurisdiction
    • Cplenary jurisdiction
    • Dadvisory jurisdiction
    Answer: (A) or iginal jurisdiction
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct Article 131 of the Constitution of India, the has original jurisdiction in matters related to states, or between the Government of India and more states, or between two or more states on one the Government of India on the other. Important Tip

More Polity topics