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General & Miscellaneous — UPSC Prelims Polity previous year questions
20 free solved previous year questions on General & Miscellaneous, papers from 2009 to 2026, drawn from UPSC CSE Prelims, State PCS, covering statement-based, direct, match and assertion questions. Every answer key has been checked again against published sources and solved independently, and each explanation is written fresh.
Read all 20 questions with answers
- #1UPSC CSE 2026Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions ?
- AEsprit de corps
- BEquity
- CAccountability
- DDelegation
Answer: (C) AccountabilityExplanation
Mr. X took responsibility for protecting the public. He reported wrongdoing to the vigilance authority and stopped the contract despite pressure. This is accountability. It means an official answers for his actions and for public welfare.
Esprit de corps means team spirit. It is not shown here.
Equity means fair treatment of different groups. The case is about quality and duty, not group fairness.
Delegation means passing authority to subordinates. Mr. X did not do that.
Remember: accountability links power to responsibility in public administration.Source: Second ARC, Ethics in Governance; standard texts on public administration
- #2UPSC CSE 2026In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint had arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.Consider the following statements with reference to the above :1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process ?
- A1, 3 and 4 only
- B2, 3 and 4 only
- C1 and 2 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (A) 1, 3 and 4 onlyExplanation
Statement 1 is correct. A fair process must first accept the tribal community's cultural concerns. Without that, talks about technical choices will not be trusted.
Statement 2 is wrong. It says urban needs outweigh tribal feelings. This ignores the minority's rights and will raise conflict.
Statement 3 is correct. A platform with all parties builds trust and calms tension.
Statement 4 is correct. An independent ESIA, shared openly, gives facts that both sides can accept.
So 1, 3 and 4 only.
Remember: conflict resolution needs inclusion, dialogue and transparency.Source: Second ARC, Ethics in Governance; PESA Act, 1996 principles on community consent
- #3UPSC CSE 2026Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city’s reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.What amongst the following should Ms. X do now ?1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project’s integrity3. Propose a ‘limited disclosure’ to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time beingSelect the answer using the code given below :
- A1 and 2 only
- B3 only
- C2 and 3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (B) 3 onlyExplanation
The information is confidential and the allegations are unproven.
Action 1 is wrong. Telling the public at once may defame the contractor before any proof, and may breach confidentiality.
Action 2 is wrong. Removing the firm on unproven claims is unfair and goes against due process.
Action 3 is right. Sharing the information only with an oversight committee keeps transparency in the system. It also protects confidentiality and fairness.
So only 3.
Remember: due process means no one is punished without proof and a hearing.Source: Second ARC, Ethics in Governance; Civil Services Conduct Rules principles
- #4UPSC CSE 2026Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India :1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ‘Constitution of India’.2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?
- AAll three statements are correct.
- BThere is no correct statement.
- CThere are two correct statements that include statement 3.
- DThere is only one correct statement.
Answer: (B) There is no correct statement.Explanation
Statement 1 is wrong. Article 393 says the Constitution may be called the Constitution of India.
Statement 2 is wrong. Article 395 repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935.
Statement 3 is wrong. Article 394 says the rest of the Constitution commences on 26 January 1950. The text names that date.
So none of the three statements is correct.
Remember: Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 60, 324, 366, 367, 379, 380, 388, 391, 392 and 393 came into force on 26 November 1949.Source: Constitution of India, Arts. 393, 394, 395
- #5UPSC CSE 2026Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct ?1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).Select the answer using the code given below :
- A1 and 2
- B2 only
- C1 and 3
- D1 only
Answer: (B) 2 onlyExplanation
Statement 1 is wrong. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act was passed in 2016, not 2018.
Statement 2 is correct. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) aims for universal access to the built environment, transport and information and communication technology.
Statement 3 is wrong. The NDFDC works under the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. It is not under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
So 2 only.
Remember: the 2016 Act recognises 21 disabilities and gives 4% reservation in government jobs.Source: Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016; Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities
- #6UPSC CSE 2026Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct ?1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.Select the answer using the code given below :
- A1, 2 and 3
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 only
- D2 only
Answer: (D) 2 onlyExplanation
Zero FIR means a First Information Report can be registered at any police station, whatever the place of the offence.
Statement 1 is wrong. Zero FIR applies to cognizable offences. The statement wrongly adds non-cognizable offences.
Statement 2 is correct. Under the BNSS, the officer in charge may start a preliminary enquiry with the permission of the competent authority in the listed cases.
Statement 3 is wrong. Information can be given electronically, but it is not compulsory.
So only 2.
Remember: after a Zero FIR, the case is transferred to the police station that has jurisdiction.Source: Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, s.173
- #7UPSC CSE 2026With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details :Sl. No. | Organisation | Function | Controlling Union Ministry1. | Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs2. | Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance3. | Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and PensionIn how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?
- A1
- B2
- C3
- DNone
Answer: (A) 1Explanation
Row 1 is wrong. The Central Economic Intelligence Bureau works under the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Row 2 is wrong. The Serious Fraud Investigation Office is under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not the Ministry of Finance.
Row 3 is correct. The CBI works under the Department of Personnel and Training, which is part of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
So only one row is correct.
Remember: the CBI is not a statutory body by a Constitution article; it was set up under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.Source: Ministry of Finance (CEIB), Ministry of Corporate Affairs (SFIO) and DoPT (CBI) official websites; DSPE Act, 1946
- #8UPSC CSE 2026Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries ?1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project2. IMT Trilateral Highway3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail LineSelect the answer using the code given below :
- A1 and 2
- B2 and 3
- C1 and 3
- D2 only
Answer: (A) 1 and 2Explanation
Statement 1 is correct. The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project links Kolkata with Mizoram through Myanmar. Myanmar is an ASEAN member.
Statement 2 is correct. The India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway links India with two ASEAN members.
Statement 3 is wrong. The Agartala-Akhaura rail line links India and Bangladesh. Bangladesh is not an ASEAN member.
So 1 and 2.
Remember: ASEAN has 11 members, including Timor-Leste, which joined in 2025.Source: Ministry of External Affairs, India-ASEAN connectivity projects
- #9UPSC CSE 2026Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :List I(Project Supported by India)A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric ProjectB. Restoration of Stor PalaceC. District Hospital at DickoyaD. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement StudiesList II(Country)1. Maldives2. Afghanistan3. Bhutan4. Sri LankaCode :A B C D
- A1 4 2 3
- B3 2 4 1
- C3 4 2 1
- D1 2 4 3
Answer: (B) 3 2 4 1Explanation
A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project is in Bhutan, so A matches 3.
B. Stor Palace in Kabul was restored with Indian help, so B matches 2, Afghanistan.
C. Dickoya district hospital was built with Indian assistance in Sri Lanka, so C matches 4.
D. The Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies is in the Maldives, so D matches 1.
The code A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 is option (b).
Remember: India's Mangdechhu project is a 720 MW run-of-the-river plant on the Mangdechhu river.Source: Ministry of External Affairs, development partnership projects
- #10UPSC CSE 2026Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation :1. The ‘Colombo Process’ is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.2. The ‘Abu Dhabi Dialogue’ is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.3. The ‘Global Forum for Migration and Development’, created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A1, 2 and 3
- B1 and 3 only
- C2 and 3 only
- D2 only
Answer: (C) 2 and 3 onlyExplanation
Statement 1 is wrong. The Colombo Process is a regional consultative process on overseas employment among Asian origin countries. Its outcomes are not binding.
Statement 2 is correct. The Abu Dhabi Dialogue is a voluntary, non-binding process between Asian labour-origin and destination countries.
Statement 3 is correct. The Global Forum on Migration and Development was set up on the proposal of former UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan. It is voluntary and its decisions are not binding.
So 2 and 3 only.
Remember: 'regional consultative processes' on migration give talks, not treaties.Source: International Organization for Migration (IOM) documents on the Colombo Process and Abu Dhabi Dialogue; GFMD website
- #11UPSC CSE 2026Consider the following UN organisations/agencies :1. World Food Programme2. United Nations Children’s Fund3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees4. International Labour OrganisationHow many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice ?
- A1
- B2
- C3
- D4
Answer: (A) 1Explanation
Only the UN High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) has won the Nobel Peace Prize twice, in 1954 and in 1981.
The World Food Programme won it once, in 2020.
UNICEF won it once, in 1965.
The International Labour Organisation won it once, in 1969.
So only one of the four has won twice.
Remember: the Red Cross (ICRC) has won the Nobel Peace Prize three times.Source: Nobel Prize official website (Peace Prize laureates list)
- #12UPSC CSE 2026Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :List I(UN Peacekeeping Operation)A. UNMILB. MINURCATC. MINUSTAHD. UNMISETList II(Period of Operation)1. 2007 – 20102. 2002 – 20053. 2003 – 20184. 2004 – 2017Code :A B C D
- A3 4 1 2
- B3 1 4 2
- C2 1 4 3
- D2 4 1 3
Answer: (B) 3 1 4 2Explanation
UNMIL was the UN mission in Liberia, 2003-2018. So A matches 3.
MINURCAT was the mission in the Central African Republic and Chad, 2007-2010. So B matches 1.
MINUSTAH was the mission in Haiti, 2004-2017. So C matches 4.
UNMISET was the mission in East Timor, 2002-2005. So D matches 2.
The code A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 is option (b).
Remember: India has been among the largest troop contributors to UN peacekeeping.Source: United Nations Peacekeeping, list of past operations
- #13UPSC CSE 2026Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :List I(BIMSTEC Centre / Establishment)A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries ObservatoryB. BIMSTEC Energy CentreC. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and ClimateD. BIMSTEC Technology transfer FacilityList II(Location)1. NOIDA2. Bengaluru3. Colombo4. ThimphuCode :A B C D
- A3 2 1 4
- B3 1 2 4
- C4 2 1 3
- D4 1 2 3
Answer: (C) 4 2 1 3Explanation
The BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory is planned for Thimphu, Bhutan. So A matches 4.
The BIMSTEC Energy Centre is in Bengaluru, India. So B matches 2.
The BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate is in Noida, India. So C matches 1.
The BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility is in Colombo, Sri Lanka. So D matches 3.
The code A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 is option (c).
Remember: BIMSTEC has seven members and its secretariat is in Dhaka.Source: BIMSTEC Secretariat documents; Ministry of External Affairs
- #14UPSC CSE 2026Which of the following countries are members of the European Union ?1. Belarus2. Poland3. Germany4. SwitzerlandSelect the answer using the code given below :
- A1, 2 and 4
- B1 and 4 only
- C2 and 3
- D2 and 4 only
Answer: (C) 2 and 3Explanation
Poland joined the European Union in 2004. Germany is a founding member.
Belarus is not in the EU. It is a country in Eastern Europe with close ties to Russia.
Switzerland is not in the EU. It is in the Schengen area and in EFTA, but it has stayed outside the Union.
So only Poland and Germany are members.
Remember: the United Kingdom left the EU in 2020.Source: European Union official website (member countries)
- #15UPSC CSE 2026Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists :List I(INTERPOL Notice)A. Silver NoticeB. Blue NoticeC. Black NoticeD. Green NoticeList II(Description)1. To seek information on unidentified bodies2. To collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation3. To provide warning about a person’s criminal activities where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety4. To identify and trace criminal assetsCode :A B C D
- A3 1 2 4
- B3 2 1 4
- C4 2 1 3
- D4 1 2 3
Answer: (C) 4 2 1 3Explanation
INTERPOL notices are colour-coded alerts.
A Silver Notice helps to identify and trace criminal assets. So A matches 4.
A Blue Notice collects extra information on a person's identity, location or activities in a criminal case. So B matches 2.
A Black Notice seeks information on unidentified bodies. So C matches 1.
A Green Notice warns about a person whose criminal acts may threaten public safety. So D matches 3.
The code A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 is option (c).
Remember: a Red Notice asks for the location and provisional arrest of a wanted person.Source: INTERPOL official website, types of notices
- #16UPSC CSE 2026Consider the following statements with regard to the film ‘Boong’ :1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children’s and Family Film category.2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children’s and Family Film category.Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A1, 2 and 3
- B2 and 3 only
- C1 and 2 only
- D3 only
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3Explanation
Statement 1 is correct. The film Boong won the BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category.
Statement 2 is correct. It is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi, a filmmaker from Manipur.
Statement 3 is correct. It is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA in this category.
So all three statements are correct.
Remember: BAFTA is the British Academy of Film and Television Arts.Source: BAFTA Film Awards 2026 announcements; PIB
- #17UPSC CSE 2024Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?Army – Airforce – Navy1. Brigadier – Air Commodore – Commander2. Major General – Air Vice Marshal – Vice Admiral3. Major – Squadron Leader – Lieutenant Commander4. Lieutenant Colonel – Group Captain – CaptainSelect the correct answer using the code given below:
- A1 and 4
- B1 and 3
- C2, 3 and 4
- D3 only
Answer: (D) 3 onlyExplanation
Row 1 is wrong. A Brigadier equals an Air Commodore and a Commodore. A Commander is equal to a Lieutenant Colonel.
Row 2 is wrong. A Major General equals an Air Vice Marshal and a Rear Admiral. A Vice Admiral is a Lieutenant General's equal.
Row 3 is correct. Major, Squadron Leader and Lieutenant Commander are equal ranks.
Row 4 is wrong. A Lieutenant Colonel equals a Wing Commander and a Commander. Group Captain and Captain match a Colonel.
So only 3 is correct.
Remember: Colonel = Group Captain = Captain.Source: Ministry of Defence: Equivalence of ranks in the Indian Armed Forces
- #18UPSC CSE 2024Consider the following statements:1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B) 2 onlyExplanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. Under Article 342, the President declares a tribe as a Scheduled Tribe by public notification. The Governor is consulted in the case of a State. Parliament can change the list by law.
Statement 2 is correct. The list is state-specific. A community may be an ST in one State and not in another.
So only statement 2 is correct.
Remember: Article 342 is for STs and Article 341 is for SCs.Source: Constitution of India, Art. 342
- #19UPSC CSE 2023Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- CStatement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- DStatement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correctExplanation
Statement-I is incorrect. The Flag Code lists nine standard sizes, from 6300 x 4200 mm down to 150 x 100 mm. The sizes include 900 x 600 mm and 450 x 300 mm, but not 600 x 400 mm.
Statement-II is correct. The length to height ratio is 3:2.
So option d holds.Source: Flag Code of India, 2002, Part I, para 1.3
- #20UPPCS 2009 (Pre)Assertion (A): Political Parties are lifeblood of democracy.Reason (R): Normally people blame political parties for bad governance.Which of the following is correct in the above context?
- ABoth (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
- C(A) is true, but (R) is wrong.
- D(A) and (R) both are wrong.
Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).Explanation
Assertion A is true. Parties organise elections, form governments and link citizens to the state.
Reason R is also true. People often blame parties for poor governance.
Blame for bad governance does not explain why parties are vital to democracy.
So R is not the correct explanation of A.
Remember: Tenth Schedule and Article 324 regulate parties and elections in India.Source: Standard political theory; Constitution of India, Tenth Schedule
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