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Constitutional Bodies — UPSC Prelims Polity previous year questions

20 free solved previous year questions on Constitutional Bodies, papers from 1991 to 2025, drawn from UPSC CSE Prelims, State PCS, covering statement-based, direct, match and assertion questions. Every answer key has been checked again against published sources and solved independently, and each explanation is written fresh.

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  1. #1UPSC CSE 2025
    Consider the following statements about Lokpal:I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • AIII only
    • BII and III
    • CI and IV
    • DNone of the above statements is correct
    Answer: (A) III only
    Explanation

    Statement I is incorrect. The Act covers public servants in India and also those posted abroad.
    Statement II is incorrect. The Chairperson can be a former Chief Justice of India, a former Supreme Court judge, or an eminent person of impeccable integrity. It is not only a former Chief Justice.
    Statement III is correct. The minimum age for the Chairperson or a Member is 45 years.
    Statement IV is incorrect. The Prime Minister is within the Lokpal's reach, with safeguards. Matters of security, atomic energy and space are excluded.
    So only Statement III is correct.

    Source: Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013

  2. #2UPSC CSE 2024
    How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
    • AOne
    • BTwo
    • CThree
    • DFour
    Answer: (D) Four
    Explanation

    Four Delimitation Commissions have been set up under Acts of Parliament. They were formed in 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.
    The 1952, 1962 and 2002 Commissions redrew boundaries. The 1972 Commission worked on 1971 Census data. After that, seat numbers were frozen by constitutional amendment till 2026, and then till the first Census after 2026.
    So the count is four.
    Remember: the Delimitation Commission's orders cannot be questioned in any court.

    Source: Delimitation Commission Acts (1952, 1962, 1972, 2002); Constitution of India, Arts. 82 and 170

  3. #3UPSC CSE 2023
    Consider the following bodies:1. The National Commission for Backward Classes2. The National Human Rights Commission3. The National Law Commission4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal CommissionHow many of the above are constitutional bodies?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll four
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Body 1 is constitutional. The 102nd Amendment Act, 2018 inserted Article 338-B for the NCBC.
    Body 2 is statutory, under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
    Body 3 is a non-statutory, executive body.
    Body 4 is statutory, under the Consumer Protection Act.
    So only one is constitutional.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 338-B; Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993

  4. #4UPSC CSE 2022
    In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO)?1. CCO is the major source of coal statistics in Government of India.2. It monitors progress of development of captive coal/lignite blocks.3. It hears any objection to the Government's notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    • A1, 2 and 3
    • B3 and 4 only
    • C1 and 2 only
    • D1, 2 and 4
    Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
    Explanation

    Statement 1 is correct. The CCO collects and publishes coal statistics.
    Statement 2 is correct. It monitors captive and commercial coal blocks.
    Statement 3 is correct. It is the competent authority that hears objections under the Coal Bearing Areas (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957.
    Statement 4 is incorrect. It does not supervise delivery to end users.

    Source: Ministry of Coal, Coal Controller's Organisation; Coal Bearing Areas (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957

  5. #5UPSC CSE 2022
    With reference to the 'Tea Board' in India, consider the following statements:1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.3. The Tea Board's Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.4. The Board has overseas office at Dubai and Moscow.Which of the statements given above are correct?
    • A1 and 3
    • B2 and 4
    • C3 and 4
    • D1 and 4
    Answer: (D) 1 and 4
    Explanation

    Statement 1 is correct. The Tea Board was set up under the Tea Act, 1953.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. It is under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. Its head office is in Kolkata.
    Statement 4 is correct as per the UPSC key. It had overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow.

    Source: Tea Act, 1953; Tea Board of India

  6. #6UPSC CSE 2017
    With reference to the 'Quality Council of India (QCI)', consider the following statements:1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
    Explanation

    Statement 1 is correct. QCI was set up in 1997 as a non-profit body by the Government and Indian industry (ASSOCHAM, CII, FICCI).
    Statement 2 is correct. The Chairman is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendation of the industry bodies, as per the UPSC key.
    QCI works under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.

    Source: Quality Council of India; DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce and Industry

  7. #7UPSC CSE 2017
    Consider the following statements:1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B2 only
    • C2 and 3 only
    • D3 only
    Answer: (D) 3 only
    Explanation

    Statement 1 is incorrect. The Commission has the Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners, so it has three members at present.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. The Election Commission decides the schedule, not the Home Ministry.
    Statement 3 is correct. Under the Symbols Order, 1968, the Commission decides disputes on splits and mergers of recognised parties.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 324; Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, para 15

  8. #8UPSC CSE 2013
    Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha3. speak in the Lok Sabha4. vote in the Lok SabhaWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 and 4 only
    • C1, 2 and 3
    • D1 and 3 only
    Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
    Explanation

    Article 88 and Article 76(3) give the Attorney General the right to speak and take part in proceedings of either House and its committees if named a member.
    Statements 1, 2 and 3 are therefore correct.
    Statement 4 is incorrect. The Attorney General has no right to vote.

    Source: Constitution of India, Arts. 76 and 88

  9. #9UPSC CSE 2012
    According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled CastesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below:
    • A1 only
    • B2 and 4 only
    • C1, 3 and 4 only
    • D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer: (C) 1, 3 and 4 only
    Explanation

    Statement 1 is correct. Art. 281 requires the President to lay Finance Commission recommendations before Parliament.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. The Public Accounts Committee reports to Parliament directly. The President does not lay it.
    Statement 3 is correct. Art. 151 requires the President to lay the CAG report before Parliament.
    Statement 4 is correct. Art. 338(6) requires the President to lay the report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes before Parliament.
    Remember: The PAC is a parliamentary committee. Its report goes to the House, not through the President.

    Source: Constitution of India, Arts. 151, 281 and 338(6)

  10. #10UPSC CSE 2011
    With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?
    • AIt encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
    • BIt facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
    • CIt ensures transparency in financial administration
    • DNone of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
    Answer: (D) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
    Explanation

    The Finance Commission is set up under Art. 280. Its main task is to recommend sharing of tax proceeds between the Union and States, and grants-in-aid to States.
    Option (a) is wrong. It has no role in attracting foreign capital.
    Option (b) is wrong. It deals with Union-State finance, not finance among public sector undertakings.
    Option (c) is wrong. Transparency in financial administration is not its function.
    So none of the first three statements is correct.

    Source: Previous year paper; answer key cross-checked against published sources

  11. #11UPSC CSE 2010 · key corrected
    Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?
    • AThe President of India
    • BThe Speaker of Lok Sabha
    • CThe Prime Minister of India
    • DThe Union Finance Minister
    Answer: (A) The President of India
    Explanation

    Art. 281 says the President shall cause every recommendation of the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament.
    He lays it with an explanatory memorandum on the action taken on it.
    The Speaker presides over Lok Sabha. He does not lay the report.
    The Prime Minister and the Finance Minister act on the report, but the Constitution gives the duty to the President.

    Source: Previous year paper; answer key cross-checked against published sources

  12. #12UPSC CSE 2002
    Which of the following recommends the principles for sharing of revenues among the Union and the States?
    • AFinance Commission
    • BInter-State Council
    • CUnion Ministry of Finance
    • DPlanning Commission
    Answer: (A) Finance Commission
    Explanation

    The Finance Commission is set up under Art. 280. It recommends the principles for sharing tax revenue between the Union and the States.
    The Inter-State Council discusses Centre-State issues. It does not fix revenue sharing.
    The Union Finance Ministry prepares the budget. It does not recommend devolution principles.
    The Planning Commission (now replaced by NITI Aayog) gave plan assistance, not the constitutional tax share.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 280

  13. #13UPSC CSE 1997 · key corrected
    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:List-I (Functionaries)A. President of IndiaB. Judges of Supreme CourtC. Members of ParliamentD. Ministers for the UnionList-II (Oaths or affirmations)1. Secrecy of Information2. Faithful discharge of Duties3. Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution of India4. Upholding the sanctity of the Constitution and LawCodes: A B C D
    • AA-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
    • BA-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
    • CA-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
    • DA-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
    Answer: (C) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
    Explanation

    The President's oath is to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law. The UPSC key matches it with Faith and Allegiance (3).
    A Supreme Court Judge's oath is to uphold the Constitution and the laws. This matches 4.
    A Member of Parliament swears to faithfully discharge the duty he is about to enter. This matches 2.
    A Union Minister takes an oath of secrecy about matters brought before him. This matches 1.
    So the code is A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1, the same as the book key.
    Remember: oath forms are in the Third Schedule.

    Source: Previous year paper; answer key cross-checked against published sources

  14. #14UPSC CSE 1995
    Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India?
    • AThe recommendation for election is made by the Government, and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission.
    • BThe recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission, and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States.
    • CThe recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission, and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned.
    • DBoth the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a notification in respect of it are done by the Election Commission.
    Answer: (C) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission, and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned.
    Explanation

    The Election Commission decides the election schedule and recommends it. It does not issue the notification itself.
    Under the Representation of the People Act 1951, the President issues the notification for Lok Sabha elections. The Governor issues it for State Assembly elections.
    Option (a) is wrong. The Government does not recommend elections.
    Option (b) is wrong. The Home Ministry does not issue the notification.
    Option (d) is wrong. The Commission only recommends.

    Source: Representation of the People Act 1951, ss. 14-15; Constitution of India, Art. 324

  15. #15UPPCS 2021
    Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R):Assertion (A): The President of India determines the qualifications of the Chairman and Members of the Finance Commission.Reason (R): Chairman and members are appointed by the President of India.Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
    • ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
    • BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
    • C(A) is true, but (R) is false
    • D(A) is false, but (R) is true
    Answer: (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
    Explanation

    Assertion (A) is false. Art. 280(2) says Parliament by law decides the qualifications of the Chairman and members. The President does not decide them.
    Reason (R) is true. Art. 280(1) says the President appoints the Chairman and four members.
    So (A) is false but (R) is true.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 280(1) and (2)

  16. #16RAS/RTS 2021
    Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the code given below:Assertion (A): The Duty of Comptroller and Auditor General is not merely to ensure the legality of expenditure but also its propriety.Reason (R): He has to uphold the Constitution and the Laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration.Code:
    • A(A) is false but (R) is true
    • BBoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    • C(A) is true but (R) is false
    • DBoth (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
    Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    Explanation

    Assertion (A) is true. The CAG checks that spending is legal. He also checks its propriety, meaning wisdom, economy and faithfulness to the intended purpose.
    Reason (R) is true. The CAG swears an oath to uphold the Constitution and the laws.
    R explains A in the sense that his duty to protect the financial system covers both legality and propriety.

    Source: Constitution of India, Art. 148 and Third Schedule; CAG (DPC) Act 1971, s. 13

  17. #17UPPCS 2017
    Given below are two statements:Assertion (A): Model code of conduct is to be followed by political parties as soon as an election is announced.Reason (R): Model code of conduct was enacted by Parliament.Choose the correct answer from the code given below:
    • ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
    • BBoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
    • C(A) is true but (R) is false.
    • D(A) is false but (R) is true.
    Answer: (C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
    Explanation

    Assertion (A) is true. The Model Code of Conduct applies to parties and candidates from the date the Election Commission announces the election.
    Reason (R) is false. The Code is not a law passed by Parliament. It began as a voluntary agreement among parties and is issued by the Election Commission.
    So (A) is true but (R) is false.

    Source: Election Commission of India, Model Code of Conduct

  18. #18UPPCS 2016
    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:List-I (Institution)A. Comptroller and Auditor General of IndiaB. Finance CommissionC. Administrative TribunalD. Union Public Service CommissionList-II (Articles)1. Article 3152. Article 2803. Article 1484. Article 323ACode:A B C D
    • A3 2 4 1
    • B3 4 2 1
    • C1 2 4 3
    • D4 1 3 2
    Answer: (A) 3 2 4 1
    Explanation

    The CAG is provided for in Article 148. So A matches 3.
    The Finance Commission is set up under Article 280. So B matches 2.
    Administrative Tribunals are provided for in Article 323A. So C matches 4.
    The Union Public Service Commission is covered by Article 315. So D matches 1.
    The correct code is 3 2 4 1.
    Remember: Article 323B deals with tribunals for other matters.

    Source: Constitution of India, Arts. 148, 280, 315, 323A

  19. #19UPPCS 2015
    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:List-IA. Article 76B. Article 148C. Article 75(1)D. Article 131List-II1. Comptroller and Auditor General of India2. Jurisdiction of Supreme Court3. Attorney General of India4. Appointment of Union MinistersCode:A B C D
    • A1 2 3 4
    • B3 1 4 2
    • C4 1 2 3
    • D2 3 4 1
    Answer: (B) 3 1 4 2
    Explanation

    Article 76 provides for the Attorney General of India. So A matches 3.
    Article 148 provides for the CAG. So B matches 1.
    Article 75(1) says the President appoints other Ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister. So C matches 4.
    Article 131 gives the Supreme Court original jurisdiction in disputes between governments. So D matches 2.
    The correct code is 3 1 4 2.
    Remember: Article 124 covers establishment of the Supreme Court.

    Source: Constitution of India, Arts. 75, 76, 131, 148

  20. #20UPPCS 1991
    Given below are two statements, in which one is Assertion and second is Reason:Assertion (A): The definition of term 'Minority' is not given in the Constitution of India.Reason (R): Minority Commission is not a Constitutional body.Which of the following is correct in regards to the statements above?
    • ABoth (A) and (R) are true, and (R) explains (A) correctly.
    • BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A) correctly.
    • C(A) is true, but (R) is false.
    • D(A) is false, but (R) is true.
    Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) does not explain (A) correctly.
    Explanation

    Assertion (A) is true. The Constitution uses the word 'minority' in Arts. 29 and 30. It does not define it.
    Reason (R) is true. The National Commission for Minorities is a statutory body set up by the 1992 Act. It is not a constitutional body.
    R does not explain A. The absence of a definition is not caused by the nature of the Commission.

    Source: National Commission for Minorities Act 1992; Constitution of India, Arts. 29-30

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