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Constitutional Bodies — UPSC Prelims Polity previous year questions

40 solved previous year questions on Constitutional Bodies, papers from 1999 to 2021, drawn from State PCS, UPSC CSE Prelims, UPPCS. Each carries the printed answer key and the explanation from the source compilation.

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Polity
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  1. #1Previous year
    The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in: [UPSC CSE Pre 1997)
    • AAustralia
    • BIndia
    • CThe United States
    • DThe United Kingdom
    Answer: (C) The United States
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) developed in the USA in the In the USA, designed to provide legal representation to groups or interests

  2. #2Previous year
    Consider the following statements:The Constitution of India provides that- 1. The Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State. 2. A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly of a State if he/she is less than 25 years of age.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UPSC CSE Pre 2008)
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither nor 2
    Answer: (B) 2 only
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct 1 is incorrect: According to Article 170 of of India, the Legislative Assembly of each consist of not more than five hundred (500), less than sixty, members chosen by direct election constituencies in the 2 is correct: According to Article 173 of of India, a person shall not be qualified to to fill a seat in the Legislature of a State unless he is a citizen of India, and makes and subscribes before sc me person authorised in that behalf by the Election Commission an oath or affirmation according to form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule; in the case of a seat in the Legislative Assembly, not less than twenty-five years of age and, in the case of a seat in the Legislative Council, not less than thirty years of age; and possesses such other qualifications as may be prescribed in that behalf by or under any law made by Parliament

  3. #3UPSC CDS 2014
    The Committee on Public Accounts under the Constitution of India is meant for 1. The examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by the House for the expenditure of the Government of India. 2. scrutinising the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General. 3. suggesting the form in which estimates shall be presented to theSelect the correct answer using the codes given below
    • AOnly 1
    • BOnly 2
    • C1 and 2
    • DAll of these
    Answer: (C) 1 and 2
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct answer. Public Accounts is fund accounts for flows for those transactions where the government is merely acting as a banker. The committee on Public Accounts was first constituted in 1921 under the act of 1919. It is constituted by Parliament each year for examination of accounts. Apart from the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India on appropriation accounts of the the committee also examines the various of Comptroller and Auditor General on expenditure by various ministries/ Department and accounts of autonomousbodies. Important Tips most important financial committee of the Parliament. 22 members [15 7 (RS)] Term (1 year); No membership of minister; Chairman appointed by Speaker; Chairman from opposition (Convention) Functions: Audits the appropriation and Revenue Account of the CAG

  4. #4UPSC CAPF 2018
    Which one of the following States does not find a mention in Article 371 of the Constitution of India?
    • AMaharashtra
    • BMadhya Pradesh
    • CGujarat
    • DKarnataka
    Answer: (D) Karnataka
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct Universal Declaration of Human Rights adopted by the UN General Assembly in Paris on 1948 during its 183rd plenary meeting. sets out the fundamental human rights and everyone is entitled to, regardless of their race, ethnicity, language, reiigion, or any other l. Solution: Option dis the correct of the Indian Constitution allows the Service Commission (UPSC) to serve a state's the Governor's request with the President's UPSC can conduct exams or advise the state recruitment and promotions, but it's not obliged to The President approves the request if it aligns with interest

  5. #5UPSC CSE Prelims 2011
    With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following staternents is correct?
    • AIt encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
    • BIt facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
    • CIt ensures transparency in financial administration
    • DNone of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
    Answer: (D) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct up under Article 280 of the Constitution, the is a Constitutionally mandated body at the centre of fiscal federalism. Its core to evaluate the state of finances of the Union and recommend the sharing of taxes lay down the principles determining the these taxes among States. Thus, none of the in above options are correct with reference Finance Commission is required to to the President of India on the

  6. #6UPSC CSE Prelims 2003
    Consider the following statements:The of the Finance Commission is/are- 1. To allow the withdrawal of the money out of the Consolidated Fund of India. 2. To allocate among the States the shares of proceeds of taxes. 3. To consider applications for grants-in-aid from States. 4. To supervise and report on whether the Union and State Governments are levying taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions.Which of these statements is/ are correct?
    • AOnly 1
    • B2 and 3
    • C3 and 4
    • D1, 2 and 4
    Answer: (B) 2 and 3
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct Article 243-I of the Constitution of India, the a state is required to constitute a Finance five years. A State Finance Commission reviews PYQ financial position of the panchayats in a state and to the Governor about the should govern the distribution of tax proceeds - levies, toll fee collected by the state between the its Panchayati Raj Institutions at all three levels -- block level and district also recommends the following: Taxes, levies and fees levied or appropriated by Panchayats themselves. Grants-in-aid to Panchayati Raj Institutions from the consolidated fund of a state. Ways to improve the financial position of the Panchayati Raj Institutions. Measures for the overall improvement of Panchayat's Article 243-I of the Indian Constitution, the a state ensures the laying of a State Finance to the table of the state legislature. It a memorandum of action tak

  7. #7UPPCS 2019
    In which year was accounting separated from auditing and the Comptroller and Auditor General's task only remained confined to auditing the Government Accounts?
    • A1975
    • B1977
    • C1976
    • D1981
    Answer: (C) 1976
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct accounting function was separated from the in 1976, when the Department of bifurcated into two separate departments, of Expenditure and Department of Accounts The latter was renamed as Department of Controller General of Accounts in then, the CAG's duty is only confined to government accounts, while the accounting function by the various departments themselves with of the Indian Civil Accounts Service

  8. #8UPPCS 2018
    Which of the following is an extra constitutional agency?
    • AUnion Public Service Commission
    • BFinance Commission
    • CElection Commission
    • DNITI Aayog
    Answer: (D) NITI Aayog
    Explanation

    Option dis the correct Aayog is an extra constitutional agency as it is in the Constitution. It is created by of the Union Cabinet. Foru Important Tips Extra- Constitutional Bodies are those which are not defined in the Constitution of India. Extra- Constitutional Bodies are of further two types: Statutory Bodies: These are those bodies that are formed by passing a law of either of the parliament of India or by the respective state Some examples are: SEBI, National Human Rights Commission, National Green Tribunal, etc. Executive Bodies: These are those bodies that are formed by the executive order of the government. There is no need for parliament or state legislatures approval to form these bodies. For example: Niti Aayog, National Development Council, Law Commission, etc. Constitutional Bodies are those which are defined in the constitution of India and derives their powers, limitation

  9. #9Previous year
    Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): Model code of conduct is to be followed by political parties as soon as an election is announced. Reason Model code of conduct was enacted by Parliament. Choose the correct answer from the code given below: [. (Pre)
    • ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    • BBoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    • C(A) is true but (R) is false
    • D(A) is false but (R) is true
    Answer: (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct answer. Assertion (A) is true- The MCC (Model Code of Conduct) consists of guidelines issued by the Election Commission to govern the behavior of political parties and candidates before elections. While it is not a legally binding document, Political Parties, Candidates, and Polling Agents are expected to adhere to these norms. The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is in effect from the date the Election Commission announces the election schedule until the date the results are announced. Reason (R) is false- The Election Commission of India issues the Election Model Code of Conduct (MCC), which serves as a set of guidelines for ensuring free and fair elections in the country

  10. #10UPPCS 2006
    Given below are two statements: Assertion (A): Powers for conducting elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures in a free and fair manner have been given to an independent body i.e., the Election Commission. Reason Power of removal of Election Commissioners is with the executive. In the context of above, which one of the following is correct?
    • ABoth (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    • BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)
    • C(A) is true but, (R) is false
    • D(A) is false but, (R) is true
    Answer: (D) (A) is false but, (R) is true
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct l is correct: The elections to the India are conducted by the respective State (SECs). The State Election Commission for overseeing and conducting the for Panchayat elections within the state of the 2 is incorrect: The State Election appointed by the Governor of the 3 is correct: As per the provisions of of India, the State Legislatures have the make laws on all matters relating to Panchayat includes the conduct of elections, the lifications of candidates, the delimitation and other related aspects

  11. #11State PCS 2016
    Choose the correct answer: The appointment of Lok Ayukta at the state level was first recommended by
    • AAdministrative Reforms Commission of India (1966-70)
    • BSanthanam Committee
    • CRajasthan State Administrative Reforms Committee
    • DSecond Administrative Reforms Commission
    Answer: (C) Rajasthan State Administrative Reforms Committee
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct Attorney-General is considered to be the first of the Government of India. The the Government of India in legal matters legal advice to the government. The and Advocate-General are legal officers, but they hold the position of the first law officer at the The Solicitor General of India is the second-highest law officer of the country and assists the Attorney General in his/her functions. The Advocate General of a State is the highest law officer of a State and advises the State Government on legal matters

  12. #12State PCS 2021
    The power to grant or refuse leave to the Comptroller and Auditor General shall vest in the
    • AFinance Minister
    • BPresident
    • CPrime Minister
    • Dof India
    Answer: (D) of India
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct President of India is the head of the country. He any area as a scheduled area and has powers to the administration of scheduled areas and Important Tips Executive Powers of President: He appoints the attorney general of India and determines his remuneration. He appoints the following people: Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners Chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission State Governors Finance Commission of India chairman and members He appoints National Commissions of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes. He appoints administrators of union territories

  13. #13State PCS 2020
    Consider the following statements: (i) It shall be the duty of the Comptroller and Auditor-General to audit all receipts which are payable into the Consolidated Fund of India. (ii) The Comptroller and Auditor General shall have authority to audit and report on the accounts of stores or stock kept in any office or department of the Union or a State. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
    • ABoth (i) and (ii) are incorrect
    • BBoth (i) and (ii) are correct
    • C(i) is incorrect but (ii) is correct
    • D(i) is correct but (ii) is incorrect
    Answer: (B) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct 1 is correct: It is the duty of the Comptroller (CAG) to audit all receipts that are the Consolidated Fund of India. The CAG ensures revenue received by the government is properly accounted 2 is correct: The CAG has the authority to report on the accounts of stores or stock kept in or department of the Union or a State. This the CAG to examine the management and stores or stock maintained by government offices

  14. #14State PCS 2019
    Which Article of the Constitution prescribes the duties of the comptroller and Auditor General of India?
    • AArticle 146
    • BArticle 14 7
    • CArticle 148
    • DArticle 149
    Answer: (D) Article 149
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct 149 of the Indian Constitution prescribes the powers of the Comptroller and Auditor CAG) of India. This article outlines the role, functions, of the CAG in auditing and reporting on of the Union and the States. It provides the the authority to examine and audit the accounts the receipt and expenditure of public funds. Important Tips Article 146 deals with the officers and servants and the expenses of the Supreme Court. It states that the Chief Justice of India can appoint officers and servants of the Supreme Court in consultation with the President. Article 147 covers the interpretation of the constitution along with that of the government of India act, 1935. Article 148 states that there shall be a CAG who shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and shall only be removed from office in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of t

  15. #15State PCS 2012
    Which one of the following is the 'National Voters Day'?
    • A5th June
    • B1st November
    • C25th January
    • D8th March ornmm
    Answer: (C) 25th January
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct Voters Day is celebrated every year on 25 India to mark the foundation of the Election India. The Election Commission of India was 25 January 1950. Important Tip The main objective of celebrating National Voters Day is to encourage people to participate in the electoral process and to make them aware of their rights and responsibilities as voters. On this day, various awareness programmes are organized by the Election Commission of India and other organizations to promote voter education and participation

  16. #16State PCS 2021
    With reference to the Finance Commission of India, consider the following statements:!I 1. The Finance Commission is a statutory body 2. The finance Commission was set up under Article 280 of the Constitution 3. The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are only advisory in nature 4. The First Finance Commission was set up in 1950Which of the above statements are correct?
    • A1 and 4 only
    • B3 and 4 only
    • C2 and 3 only
    • D2 and 4 only
    Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct answer The finance commission is a constitutional body mandated by article 280 of the constitution. The President of India constitutes the Finance Commission every 5 years. The recommendations made by the Finance Commission are of an advisory nature only and therefore, not binding upon the government. The first Finance Commission was constituted in 1951. Important Tips The eligibility of members of the Finance Commission is determined by the Parliament of India. Composition of Finance Commission: Chairman and 4 members. It submits its report to the President of unit consists of questions from General and State E Constitutional dimensions. UPSC CSE Previous

  17. #17UPSC CSE Prelims 2020
    One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is
    • Athe final goal of a stateless society
    • Bclass struggle
    • Cabolition of private property
    • Deconomic determinism
    Answer: (B) class struggle
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct Function of the Finance Commission to to the President as distribution between the Union and the States of proceeds of taxes which are to be, or maybe, them and the allocation between the States of shares of such proceeds. Hence statement 2 principles which should govern the grants-in-aid revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund Hence statement 3 is correct. Important Tips Finance Commission The Finance Commission is a Constitutionally mandated body that is at the centre of fiscal federalism. It was set up under Article 280 of the Constitution. The first Finance Commission was set up in 1951 and there have been fifteen Finance commission so far

  18. #18State PCS 1999
    The state emblem was adopted by Govt. of India on
    • A15 th August, 1948
    • B2nd October, 1947
    • C26 th January, 1948
    • D26 th January, 1950
    Answer: (C) 26 th January, 1948
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct Chief Election Commissioner of India is the President of India. The appointment is made with the Prime Minister, the Chief Justice and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Chief Election Commissioner is the head of the of India, which is responsible for to the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha, and the Assemblies. He is also responsible for elections are conducted in a free and fair manner. Important Tips Structure of Election Commission of India: Since its inception in 1950 and till 1989, the Election Commission functioned as a single member body consisting of the Chief Election Commissioner only. But the Election Commissioner Amendment Act of 1989 transformed it into a multi-member body. As per Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, the Election Commission consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and such number of other Election Commissioners as the President fr

  19. #19UPSC CDS 2020
    Which one of the following is not a classified of political parties as outlined by the Election Commission of India?
    • ANational Parties
    • BState Recognised Parties
    • CRegional Parties
    • DRegistered Unrecognised Parties
    Answer: (C) Regional Parties
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct there are numerous political parties in India based on regional interests and have a strong specific states or regions, the Election not specifically classify them as "Regional classification system mainly focuses on at the national and state levels based on performance and adherence to certain criteria

  20. #20Practice set
    With reference to "Discretionary grants", consider the following statements: 1. It is called discretionary grants because there is no constitutional obligation for the centre to give these grants to states. 2. States can make these grants only for those public purposes which are within their legislative jurisdictions. 3. Centre allots these grants to states based only on the recommendation of the Finance commission. llflf PracticeboHow many of the above given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone Inter-State Relations
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct answer sharing of taxes between the Centre and the Constitution provides for grants-in-aid to the states Central resources. There are two types of grants-in-aid statutory grants and discretionary l is correct: Discretionary grants are called there is no constitutional obligation for the give these grants to states and matters lie within discretion. These grants are given to states to to fulfil their developmental plans and influence implement the national 2 is incorrect: Article 282 empowers both and the states to make any grants for any even if it is not within their respective 3 is incorrect: Centre does not allot these states based on the recommendation of the In contrast statutory grants (Article 275) to states by the centre based on the the Finance commission. G Important Tips For the horizontal devolution, the 15 th Finance Commission has suggested the follo

  21. #21Practice set
    In whkh of following the office of Attorney of India differs from the offkc of Soiikitor General of 1. Unlike Attorney General, the Constitution of [ndia does not mention about the office of Solicitor General. 2. Unlike Solicitor General, Attorney General has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of the Parliament.Select the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 only
    • B2
    • CBoth J and 2 (cl) Neither 1 nor 2 11
    • DAll four
    Answer: (C) Both J and 2 (cl) Neither 1 nor 2 11
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct l is correct: The Constitution (Article 76) for the office of the Attorney General for the Constitution of India does not the solicitor general and additional solicitor General and Additional Solicitor General's governed by Law Officers (Conditions of Service) 2 is correct: In the performance of his the Attorney General has the right to speak and part in the proceedings of both the Houses of their joint sitting and any committee of the which he may be named a member, but without a vote. The solicitor general has no right to speak in the proceedings of the AND Important Tips The Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for the removal of Attorney General of India. He holds office at the pleasure of the President

  22. #22Practice set
    Consider the following statements about the differences between Central Finance Commission ( CFC) and State Finance Commission (SFC) in India: 1. Central Financial Commission is a constitutional body, whereas SFC is a statutory body. 2. The recommendations of the CFC are binding on the Government of India, while the recommendations of the SFC are advisory in nature.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 Only
    • B2 Only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct 1 is incorrect: The Central Finance is a constitutional body under Article 280 of State Finance Commission (SFC) is constitutional body that is established in every State under Article 243-1 of the 2 is incorrect: The recommendation of both are advisory in nature. The President and places the recommendations of the with the action taken report before the Parliament legislature respectively

  23. #23Practice set
    Consider the following statements: 1. The allotment of seats in panchayat and municipality elections cannot be challenged in high court. 2. Without giving any opportunity to be heard, a municipality can be dissolved earlier than its term.Which of the above statement is/are incorrect?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the Committee of The Constitution has envisaged the CAG as and guide to the PAC. Being a specialist, the assist the PAC which has almost similar functions, they may hold the executive accountable for decisions, as best as The PAC, for its part, examines the CAG's reports have been laid in the Parliament by the President, back its findings to the Parliament. The CAG PAC in the examination of these reports. Thus, a close working relationship between CAG and PAC the accountability of executive in the field of neither of them supervises the functioning of as they are independent of each other

  24. #24Practice set
    Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding the State Finance Commission? 1. It recommends the principles that govern the grants-in-aid to the panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of India. 2. It has the function of the determination of taxes, duties, tolls and fees may h assigned to the panchayats. 3. It is to be constituted by the governor of a state after every five years.Select the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B2 only
    • C2 and 3 only
    • D3 only
    Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct l is incorrect. The State Finance the principies that govern the grants-in-aid panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State from the Consolidated fund of 2 is correct. State Finance commission of the determination of taxes, duties, tolls and may be assigned to the 3 is correct. Under Article 243-I of of India, the governor of a state is required a Finance Commission every five years

  25. #25Practice set
    Consider the following statements regarding the Finance Commission: 1. The commission submits its report to the President to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament. 2. The recommendations of the commission shall be implemented within a specified time frame. 3. The Commission has the powers of a civil court, and it can summon witnesses and take evidence.How many of the above given statements support the argument that the Finance Commission is a Quasi -Judicial body?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct l is incorrect: The Finance commission report to the president. He lays it before both the Parliament along with an explanatory memorandum the action taken on its recommendations. However, not make it a quasi-judicial 2 is incorrect: The recommendations made by Commission are only of advisory natnre 8 nd binding on the government. The recommendations commission have no time for its 3 is correct: In carrying out its functions, Commission has the of a civil court, can summon witnesses, take evidence, and require of documents. Thin makes it a body

  26. #26Practice set
    The Constitution of India provides which of the following r rovisions to ensure the independence of Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)? 1. The Chief Election Commissioner is to be appointed by a collegium headed by the Prime Minister. 2. Retiring Chief Election Commissioner is not eligible for any further appointment under the government. 3. He can be removed only on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. 4. The service conditions of the Chief Election Commissioner cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointrncnt.Select the correct answer using the codes given below
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B3 and 4 only
    • C1 and 4 only
    • D2, 3 and 4 only
    Answer: (B) 3 and 4 only
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct 324 of the Constitution has made the safeguard and ensure the independent and of the Election I is incorrect: The appointment of the commissioner and other election made by the The Chief Election Commissioner and Other (Appointment, Conditions of Term of Office) Bill, 2023 has been introduced in so provisions related to appointment may time, kindly update the same 2 is incorrect: The Constitution has not retiring election commissioners from any by the 3 is correct: The chief election be removed from his office except in the and on the same grounds as a judge of the In other words, he can be removed by the on a resolution passed to that effect by both the Parliament with special majority, either on the ground misbehaviour or 4 is correct: According to the India, the service conditions of the Chief (CEC) cannot be varied to his his appointment. This provision is ens

  27. #27Practice set
    Which among the following is incorrect about the powers of the Election Commission of India?
    • AIt allots election symbols to political parties along with settling disputes related to it
    • BIt sets limits on campaign expenditure per candidate for all the political parties
    • CIt introduced the Electoral Photo Identity Card for the elections to Lok Sabha in India
    • DIt has the power to de-register parties for violations listed in the Representation of People Act, 1951
    Answer: (D) It has the power to de-register parties for violations listed in the Representation of People Act, 1951
    Explanation

    Option dis the correct a is correct: The Election Symbols Allotment) Order, 1968 empowers the EC to parties and allot symbols. Under Paragraph 15 Order, it can decide disputes among rival groups of a recognized political party staking claim to and b is correct: Election Commission of India of campaign expenditure per candidate to all parties and also monitors the same. An or expenditure beyond the cap can lead of the candidate by the ECI for up to under RPA, c is correct: The Election Commission Electoral Photo Identity Card (EPIC) in 1994-95 the voters at the time of polls.The present EPIC at the national level has been above d is incorrect: The Election Commission does the power to deregister political parties even for violations under section of the People Act, 1951

  28. #28Practice set
    Consider the following bodies l. Union Public Service Commission 2. Central Bureau of Investigation 3. Central Vigilance Commission 4. Central Information CommissionHow many of the above bodies are under the ministrative control of the Ministry of Perional, Public Grievances and Pensions?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll four
    Answer: (D) All four
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct 2, 3 and 4 are correct - All the above given bodies administrative control of the Ministry of Grievances and Pensions. UPSC is a Constitutional Body under Article 315- 323 Part XIV Chapter of the Constitution of India to discharge their duties, functions, and obligations assigned under Article 320. The UPSC conducts various examinations in accordance with the Rules of examination as notified by the Government of India in a just, fair and impartial manner for making a merit based selection and recommendation of candidates for various Group A and Group B Services of the Govt. of Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the premier investigating police agency in India. CBI also provides assistance to the Central Vigilance Commission and Lokpal. Central Vigilance Commission is the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive authority, monitoring all

  29. #29Practice set
    Which among the following government institutions is directly audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
    • AOil and Natural Gas Commission
    • BCentral Warehousing Corporation
    • CFood Corporation of India
    • DReserve Bank of India
    Answer: (A) Oil and Natural Gas Commission
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct corporations are audited totally and directly CAG, for example, Damodar Valley Corporation, Natural Gas Commission, Air India, Indian and b is incorrect. Some other corporations are private professional auditors who are appointed Central Government in consultation with the CAG. the CAG can conduct supplementary audit. are, Central Warehousing Corporation, Corporation, and c and dare incorrect. Some corporations are to private audit. Their audit is done private professional auditors and the CAG does into the picture at all. They submit their and accounts directly to the Parliament. such corporations are Life Insurance Corporation Reserve Bank of India, State Bank of India and of India

  30. #30Practice set
    With reference to the Central Information Commission, consider the following statements: 1. The salary of the Chief Information Commissioner must be equal to that of the Chief Election Commissioner. 2. It can order suo-moto inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds. 3. It can impose penalty on a public information officer ifhe refuses to furnish information.How many statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct l is incorrect. The Right to Act, 2019 amended the Right to 2005. The 2005 Act provides that the salary of and ICs (at the central level) will be equivalent salary paid to the Chief Election Commissioner Commissioners. But the amended act the salary of both Chief Information Information Commissioner is to be determined by 2 is correct. It is the duty of the receive and inquire into a complaint from any apart from this, it can suo-moto order any matter if there are reasonable 3 is correct. CIC can impose penalty on information officer) if he refused to within the specified time. It can also action against the errant

  31. #31Practice set
    Which of the following statements regarding the Election Commission of India is/ are correct? 1. All decisions of the Election Commission of India are taken by majority vote. 2. It inquires the disputes arising out of the election of the Vice- President. 3. The Election Commission cannot disqualify a candidate for violation of the Model Code of Conduct.Select the correct option using the code given below
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B2 and 3 only
    • C1 and 3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3
    Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct l is correct: All the Election Chief Election Commissioner) have the and any decision is taken by majority. So the CEC to be 2 is incorrect: Matters related to electoral case of the Vice President of India are decided upon Supreme Court only whose decision is 3 is correct: The members of the can only reprimand candidates in case of the Model Code of Conduct, or at most under relevant sections of Civil Procedure Code. however disqualify them on any grounds, other mentioned in the Representation of People Act, not include violation of Model Code of Conduct as

  32. #32Practice set
    Consider the following statements regarding the 'State Election Commission' (SEC): 1. The tenure of the State Election Commissioner varies from State to State. 2. An election petition related to local body polls must be compulsorily submitted to SEC. 3. It operates under the supervision and control of Election Commission of India. of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 and 3 only
    • B1 only
    • C2 and 3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3
    Answer: (B) 1 only
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct l is correct. State Election Commission n.state election Lu Ge by His conditions of service and tenure of be determined by the governor of the state his tenure varies from state to 2 is incorrect. The Constitution lays down that to any panchayat or municipality is to be by an election petition presented to such in such manner as provided hy the 3 is incorrect. State Election Commission Commission of India operate the two authorities have a similar are independent of each other and draw powers laws

  33. #33Practice set
    With reference to the star campaigners in elections, consider the following statements: 1. Electioneering Expenditure incurred by a star campaigner is not added to a candidate's poll expenditure. 2. The appointment of star campaigner need to be approved by the Election Commission of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (A) 1 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct answer Star campaigners can be described as persons who by political parties to campaign in a given l is correct. Expenditure incurred by the star campaigner is not added to poll expenditure giving him/her more to the Representation of People's Act, will be borne by the political 2 is incorrect. A star campaigner is nominated concerned political parties specifying their duration of the status. ECI has no role in appointment campaigners for political parties

  34. #34Practice set
    Which of the following are the roles and duties of Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) in India? 1. He ensures arrangements at election booths and demonstration of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in every district. 2. He reviews the law-and-order situation in the state during elections. 3. He allocates symbols to the contesting candidates. 4. He scrutinises the nomination forms of contesting candidates.Select the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B1, 3 and 4 only
    • C2 and 3 only
    • D1, 2 and 4 only
    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct India, the Election machinery is operated effectively Election Commission of India, Chief Electoral Officer, Electoral Registration Officer, and the l is correct. The Chief Electoral Officer arrangements at election booths and EVMs in every district. He also looks out the of EVM and election 2 is correct. The Chief Electoral Officer the law-and-order situation in the state and detailed assessment to ensure that timely measures are taken. His role is to maintain inter-state sealing of borders as needed. He ensures whether deployment plan is in compliance with the of India's directives and also ensures and the Complaint Cell are functioning at in the 3 is incorrect. A Returning Officer (not oversees the election in a constituency or sometimes constituencies, as directed by the Election responsible for allotting symbols to the 4 is incorrect. The Returning Officer ex

  35. #35Practice set
    Which of the following are the advantages of being recognized as the National and State parties? 1. The candidates of these parties require only one proposer to file election nomination. 2. The parties are provided with space by the Government for campaigning and organizing rallies. 3. The Election Commission of India provides election symbols to both of these parties for their exclusive nationwide use. 4. The parties might be provided with land by the government to establish their party office.Select the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1, 2 and 4 only
    • B1, 3 and 4 only
    • C1, 2 and 3 only
    • D1 and 4 only
    Answer: (D) 1 and 4 only
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct has a multi-party system as Indian politics is several national and regional l correct. If the candidate is contesting from a recognised political party, then only of the constituency is required to propose the 2 is incorrect. There is no such advantage by the government of India to the political or in India. The candidates of the parties have to spaces by 3 is incorrect. If a party is recognised as a it is entitled for exclusive allotment of its to the candidates set up by it in the State only and nationwide use of that symbol it has to he 'National 4 is correct. The National Political Parties been recognized as such by the Election Commission and the State recognized parties shall be allotment of land for construction of office building. Important Tips To be recognised as a state party, a party need: At least vote-share in the last Assembly election and have at

  36. #36Practice set
    In the context of efforts of Election Commission of India (ECI) to imp rove voters' awareness and voters' turnout in election, consider the following statements: 1. Systematic Voters Education and Electoral Participation (SVEEP) is a joint initiative of ECI and Association of Democratic Reforms (ADR). 2. "Accessible elections" initiative mainly aims to promote the electoral participation of tribal people. 3. The ECI launched Model Polling Stations (MPS) to provide basic facilities to voters in the polling booth.How many of the above-given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct 1 is incorrect: Systematic Voters Education Participation (SVEEP) is the flagship program Election Commission of India (not a joint Association of Democratic Reforms (ADR) for spreading voter awareness and promoting in 2 is incorrect: While it is true that is an initiative launched by Election India, It aims to improve the participation of abled people in election by Construction entering polling stations without waiting in and facility granted to take wheelchairs inside 3 is correct: The Election Commission of introduced the concept of Model Polling to provide basic minimum facilities to voters polling booth. MPS is believed to improve the in the election process

  37. #37Practice set
    to elections in India, consider the following statements: 1. The 17th Constitutional Amendment Act (CAA) made the procedure for removal of other Election Commissioners as the same as that of Chief Election Commissioner. 2. The candidate contesting elections for State and Central legislature must declare his/her - own assets, spouses' assets and dependants' assets. 3. It is mandatory for political parties to publish criminal records of their candidates on their websites and to publish them in at least two newspapers. 4. Legislatures can be removed from his/her post immediately after his/her conviction of offences which amounts to at least 2-year imprisonment.How many of the above-given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll four
    Answer: (C) Only three
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct 1 is incorrect: Article 324 (5) of the that the Chief Election Commissioner shall removed from his office except in like manner as of the Supreme Court. But does not provide to the Election Commissioners, and it that they cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner provision has not changed so far by the 2 is correct: In 2003, the Election an order directing every candidate seeking election Parliament or a State legislature to declare his/her - spouses' assets and dependants' 3 is correct: In 2020 the Supreme court ruled must publish criminal records of its candidates website and to publish such details in at least by political parties within 48 hours of or at least two weeks before the first date for nomination 4 is correct: Section 8 of the Representation People Act (RPA), 1951, states that a candidate can if he/

  38. #38Practice set
    Which among the following a special feature that distinguishes a pressure group from a political party? 1. While the political parties can be informal but to be the recognized as a pressure group it must be a formal entity. 2. Pressure groups are always confined to a few people, while parties involve a larger number of people. 3. Pressure groups do not seek to get into power, while political parties do. 4. Pressure groups do not seek to mobilise people, while political parties do.Select the correct answer using the codes given below
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B1, 2 and 3 only
    • C3 only
    • D3 and 4 only
    Answer: (C) 3 only
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct pressure group is a group of people who are for promoting and defending their common l is incorrect. Political parties are they need to be registered with (In India -- Election Commission of India). groups can be formal or informal in nature. They can as a society, but it is not a mandatory 2 is incorrect. Some Pressure groups are a few people, but some groups are very big like 3 is correct. Pressure groups are attempt to influence government policies. But parties, pressure groups do not aim to or share political power. Promoting the a group of society or interests of particular society is the usual aim of Pressure or interest associations of teachers, doctors, associations, trade unions are some examples or interest 4 is incorrect. Pressure groups seek to to effectively influence the government policies

  39. #39Full-length test
    Consider the following statements with reference to the State Election Commissioner: 1. The Constitution of India prescribes qualification criteria for the appointment of State Election Commissioner. 2. The conditions of service and tenure of his/her office are determined by the President of India. 3. S/he cannot be removed from the office except in the manner prescribed for the removal of a judge of the High Court.How many of the above given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct Constitution of India vests in the State consisting of a State Election superintendence, direction and control of of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of to the Panchayats and the Municipalities Articles and l is incorrect: The Qualifications for State Election Commissioner are determined by the It is nowhere mentioned in the Constitution of 2 is incorrect: The conditions of SEC's tenure of office are determined by the governor. of service cannot be varied to his his/her 3 is correct: The State Election the status, salary and allowance of a Judge of a and cannot be removed from office except in and on the like grounds as a Judge of a The provisions of Article of the provides for setting up of SECs, are almost those of Article 324 related to the Election Commission. Important Tips State Election Commission The Constitution of India vests in the State Election Co

  40. #40Full-length test
    Consider the following statements regarding 'State Finance Commission':1. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act { } provides for a voluntary obligation on states to constitute a State Finance Commission after every five years. 2. The Indian Constitution provides for the fixed tenure of the chairperson of the State Finance Commission. 3. The Governor of a state ensures the laying of a State Finance Commission's recommendations on the table of the state legislature.How many of the statements given above are incorrect?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct 1 is incorrect: 73rd Constitutional (1992) makes it mandatory for constitution of a Commission after every five years to review position of the 2 is incorrect: Constitution of India does for the appointment and tenure of chairperson State Finance Commission. It is regulated by 3 is correct: A State Finance Commission financial position of the panchayats in a state and to the Governor about the should govern the distribution of tax proceeds. 243-1 of the Indian Constitution, the governor state ensures the laying of a State Finance to the table of the state legislature. It a memorandum of action taken by the the Commission's report j l l J

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