UPSC Prelims PYQ › Polity › Emergency & Amendments

Emergency & Amendments — UPSC Prelims Polity previous year questions — page 2

65 solved previous year questions on Emergency & Amendments, papers from 1995 to 2022, drawn from UPSC CDS, State PCS, UPSC CAPF. Each carries the printed answer key and the explanation from the source compilation.

1. #41Practice set
   Consider the following statements related to financial emergency in India: 1. In the constitution, no maximum period is prescribed for its operation. 2. Parliamentary approval is required after every six months for continuation of financial emergency. 3. A proclamation of Financial Emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation.How many of the above given statements is/ are correct?
   • AOnly one
   • BOnly two
   • CAll three
   • DNone
   Answer: (B) Only two
   Explanation

   Option bis the correct l is correct: Article 360 empowers the proclaim a Financial Emergency. As per Article 360, period is prescribed for financial emergency 2 is incorrect: As per Article 360, approval is not required for continuation emergency which means once approved, continues indefinitely till it is 3 is correct: A proclamation of may be revoked by the president at any time subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does parliamentary approval

2. #42Practice set
   Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India was referred to as 'dead letter' hy Dr. B R Ambedkar?
   • AArticle 356
   • BArticle 352
   • CArticle 34
   • DArticle 360
   Answer: (A) Article 356
   Explanation

   Option a is the correct BR Ambedkar, while replying to the critics of Article rule) provision in the Constituent that the drastic power conferred by Article 356 a dead-letter' and would be used only as a last resort. He also said, if the Centre is to interfere in of provincial affairs, it must be under which the Constitution imposes upon the proper thing we ought to expect is that such Articles will never be called into operation and that they a dead letter. Important Tips Emergency provisions are borrowed from the Govt. Of India Act 1935 "Suspension of Fundamental Rights during proclamation of emergency" provision borrowed from Weimer constitution (Now Russia) First time, the President's Rule was imposed in Punjab in 1951. In India, no Financial Emergency has been declared so far

3. #43Practice set
   With reference to National Emergency proclaimed under Article 352, consider the following statements: 1. President can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the Union Cabinet. 2. Emergency can be extended for an indefinite period with the approval of Parliament every six months. 3. No proclamation can be made when the Lok Sabha is dissolved.How many of the statements given above are correct?
   • AOnly one
   • BOnly two
   • CAll three
   • DNone
   Answer: (B) Only two
   Explanation

   Option b is the correct l is correct: The President, can proclaim a only after receiving a written the cabinet. This provision was added by the Act of 2 is correct: If approved by both the Houses the emergency continues for six months be extended to an indefinite period with the the Parliament every six months. This parliamentary approval was also added by Amendment Act of 3 is incorrect: Proclamation can be made the Lok Sabha is dissolved provided the Rajya approves it

4. #44Practice set
   Consider the following statements about the effect of National emergency on the Fundamental Rights of the citizens: 1. Unlike Article 358, Article 359 suspends the fundamental rights for the entire duration of Emergency. 2. Unlike Article 358, Article 359 suspends the fundamental rights in case of both External as well as Internal Emergency. 3. Neither Article 358 nor Article 359 results in the suspension of fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21.How many of the above given statements is/ are correct?
   • AOnly one
   • BOnly two
   • CAll three
   • DNone Pradiceb Amendment to the Constitutfon
   Answer: (B) Only two
   Explanation

   Option b is the correct l is incorrect. Article 358 suspends under Article 19 for the entire duration of Article 359 suspends the enforcement of for a period specified by the president which be the entire duration of Emergency or a 2 is correct. Article 358 operates only in External Emergency (that is, when the emergency on the grounds of war or external aggression) in the case of Internal Emergency. On the other 359, operates in case of both External Emergency as Internal 3 is correct. Article 358 is confined Rights under Article 19 whereas Article to ali those Fundamental Rights whose suspended by the Presidential 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted the scope 359 by not allowing President to suspend the move the Court for the enforcement of guaranteed by Articles 20 to 21. Thus, the right in respect of conviction for offences (Article

5. #45Practice set
   Consider the following statements regarding the procedure of the amendment of Indian Constitution: 1. All the states must give their consent when an amendment modifies an article related to distribution of powers between the states and the central government. 2. To amend the provisions under Article 368, both the Houses must pass the amendment bill with simple majorities.Which of the statement given above is/are incorrect?
   • A1 only
   • B2 only
   • CBoth 1 and 2
   • DNeither 1 nor 2
   Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct l is incorrect. When an amendment aims an article related to distribution of powers States and Lhe central government, it is necessary least half the States (and not all) give their consent. has ensured this by providing that half the States have to pass the amendment bill amendment comes into effect. Consent of only half is required and simple majority of the State Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 368 in Part XX of deals with the powers of Parliament to Constitution and its procedure. A number of the Constitution that can be amended by a simple the two Houses of Parliament is outside the scope 368. Important Tips Amendment to the Constitution (under 368) requires two different kinds of special majorities

6. #46Practice set
   Consider the following statements with reference to the Amendment procedure: 1. The Constitution prescribes the time frame within which the state legislatures should ratify or reject an amendment submitted to them. 2. Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   • A1 only
   • B2 only
   • CBoth 1 and 2
   • DNeither 1 nor 2
   Answer: (B) 2 only
   Explanation

   Option b is the correct 368 provides for two types of amendments, that a special majority of Parliament and the special Parliament along with the ratification of half of the by a simple l is incorrect: The Constitution does the time frame within which the state ratify or reject an amendment submitted to it is silent on the issue whether the states can approval after according the 2 is correct: Article 368 in Part XX of deals with the powers of Parliament the Constitution and its procedure. It states that may, in exercise of its constituent power, way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of in accordance with the procedure laid the purpose. However, the Parliament cannot provisions which form the 'basic structure' of This was ruled by the Supreme Court in Bharati case

7. #47Practice set
   Which of the following provisions are not to be considered as amendments of the constitution under Article 368? 1. Laws made for the establishment of new states. 2. Abolition of legislative council in the states. 3. Delimitation of constituencies. 4. Concurrent lists 5. GST councilSelect the correct answer using the code given below
   • A1, 2, 3 and 4 only
   • B2, 3, 4 and 5 only
   • C1, 2 and 3 only
   • D1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
   Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct provisions which are amended by simple parliament i.e. majority of the members of each and voting are not deemed to be amendments of for the purpose of Article lfllf NANCE The provisions, among others, include

8. #48Practice set
   Match the following pairs of constitutional amendments and its subjects:Constitutional Subject Amendment 1. The 101st A. Reservation of seats Amendment for SCs and STs in legislatures Pra m 2. The 102nd B. Goods and Services Amendment Tax. 3. The 103rd C. National Amendment Commission for Backward Classes 4. The 104th D. Reservation for Amendment Economically Weaker SectionsSelect the correct answer using the code given below
   • A1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
   • B1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B
   • C1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
   • D1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
   Answer: (A) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
   Explanation

   Option a is the correct 1-B The 101st Constitutional Amendment, the Goods and Services Tax. It amended Schedule, Seventh Schedule of the 2-C The 102nd Constitutional Amendment, constitutional status to the National Backward Classes (NCBC). Previously NCBC was body under the Ministry of Social Justice 3-D The 103rd Constitutional Amendment, a maximum of Reservation for Sections (EWSs) of citizens of classes other classes mentioned in clauses (4) and (5) of i.e. Classes other than socially and classes of citizens or the Scheduled Castes Scheduled 4-A The 104th Constitutional Amendment, the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the and states assemblies from Seventy years to It also removed the reserved seats for the community in the Lok Sabha and state assemblies

9. #49Practice set
   Consider the following statements with reference to the procedure of amendment of Indian Constitution: 1. A Bill for the amendment of provisions of Article 368, has to be ratified by not less than half of the states. 2. The power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution lies with the Indian Parliament only. 3. Indian constitution has no provision for holding a joint sitting for the deadlock over the passage of a constitutional amendment bill. 4. According to the Constitution, if a state once approves a Constitutional amendment bill, it cannot withdraw its approval to such a bill.How many of the statements given above are correct?
   • AOnly one
   • BOnly two
   • COnly three
   • DAll four
   Answer: (C) Only three
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct 1 b In Lhc case of amendment mentioned in Article 368, It needs to be not less than half of the states. Ratification should by a resolution passed by the state this must be passed before the amendment presented to the President for his 2 is correct: Amendment can be ilnitiated the introduction of a bill for the purpose in of the Parliament. The bill can be introduced a minister or by a privale member and does not prior permission of the 3 is correct: In India there is no provision a joint sitting of both of Parliament if there is a deadlock over the a constitutional amendment 4 is incorrect: The constitution is silent on of whether the states can withdraw their approval their approval

10. #50Practice set
    A Constitutional Amendment seeking to amend Article 368, which deals with the procedure to amend the Constitution, needs to be passed in which of the following manner?
    • ABy the simple majority of the Parliament
    • BBy the special majority of the Parliament
    • CBy the special majority of the Parliament and consent of half of the State Legislatures
    • DIt cannot be amended at all
    Answer: (C) By the special majority of the Parliament and consent of half of the State Legislatures
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct 368 in Part XX deals with the process to Constitution. Article 368 itself can be amended by by passing a Constitutional Amendment special majority (by more than 50 percent of of the House and 2/3rd of the members of present and Voting). This is, however, subject to by at least half of the State Legislatures by majority

11. #51Practice set
    The amendment to which of the following provisions of the Constitution requires consent of at least half of the state legislatures, in addition to the special majority of the Parliament? 1. Altering the existing boundaries of the States. 2. Representation of States in Parliament. 3. Election process of both the President and the Vice-President 4. Fundamental Rights 5. Delimitation of constituenciesChoose the correct answer from the codes given below
    • A2 only
    • B1, 2 and 5 only
    • C3 and 4 only
    • D1, 2, 3 and 4 only
    Answer: (A) 2 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct 368 deals with the cases where consent of half states is needed along with a special majority of for amending certain constitutional I is incorrect: Article 4 of the Constitution that laws made for altering the boundaries of not to be considered as amendment to the Article 368. This implies that such laws can be a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative 2 is correct: Article 368 specifically mentions amendments regarding representation in the Parliament needs consent of at least half of 3 is incorrect: Any Constitutional amendments of election of President and its manner of half of the states. However, this requirement is for making amendments to the election process 4 is incorrect: Amendments to the contained in Part of the Constitution can be special majority of the Parliament. It does not consent of the 5 is incorrect: Amendments regarding constituencie

12. #52Practice set
    With reference to various Constitutional Amendments and their subject matter, consider the following pairs: u matter Amendments 1. 42nd Deleted Fundamental Amendment right to property Act,1976 2. 52nd Anti defection law Amendment Act, 1985 3. 61st Reduced voting age Amendment from 21 to 18 Act,1989 4. 100th Replaced collegium Amendment system with Act,2015 National Judicial Appointments Commission AND How many pairs given above are correct? (a) 1 only
    • AOnly one pair (b) 2 only
    • BOnly two pairs (c) Both 1 and 2
    • COnly three pairs (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    • DAll four pairs 304. A Constitutional Amendment Bill
    Answer: (B) Only two pairs (c) Both 1 and 2
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct only two pairs are correctly l is incorrect: It was the 44th Act,1978 that deleted the right to the list of Fundamental Rights and made it only right. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 mini constitution led to addition of new words provided for tribunals, added fundamental the 2 is correct: 52nd Constitutional 1985 provided for disqualification of members and state legislatures on the ground of added a new Tenth Schedule containing the details 3 is correct: 61st Constitutional Reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 the Lok Sabha and state legislative assembly elections youth rightful participation in electoral 4 is incorrect: 99th Constitutional Replaced the collegium system of to the Supreme Court and High Courts with a called the National Judicial Appointments However, in 2015, the Supreme Court amendment act as unconstitutional and void. Constitutiona

13. #53Practice set
    With reference to the socially and educationally backward classes (SEBCs) in India, consider the following statements: 1. States can prepare their own list of socially and educationally backward classes. NANCE 2. The list of socially and educationally backward classes prepared by the states cannot differ from the Central list. 3. Only the Parliament may notify the Central list of socially and educationally backward classes. 4. Union Territories must consult the National Commission for Backward Classes while preparing their list of socially and educationally backward classes.How many of the above slalerneuls are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll Four
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct Constitution (105th Amendment) Act seeks to provisions in the 102 nd Constitutional Amendment restore the power of the states and Union territories their own list of socially and educationally 1 is Constitution (105th Amendment) Act enables union territories to prepare their own list of educationally backward classes. This list must be 2 is Constitution (105th Amendment) Act provides that made by states and union territories can differ central 3 is Constitution (One Hundred and Second 2018 gave constitutional status to the NCBC, the President to notify the list of socially backward classes for any state or union all purposes. The 2021 amendment act amends this that the President may notify the list of educationally backward classes only for purposes central government. This central list will be maintained by the central 4 is of the Constitution the central governm

14. #54Practice set
    to the GST Cm.mdl, consider the following statements: 1. Union Finance Minister and Chief Ministers of all states are members of the Council. 2. The vote of the Central government has weightage of the total votes in theWhich of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only Practkebook
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
    Explanation

    Option dis the correct (One Hundred and First Amendment-) Act, 2016, in 2016. It inserted, Article which provided Goods and Services Tax l is incorrect. The GST Council is a that aims to bring together states and the Centre on platform for the nationwide rollout of the reform. It consists of the following members: Union Finance Minister Union Minister of State for finance The Minister in charge of finance or taxation or any other Minister nominated by each State government, as Ministers of all states are not members of the 2 is incorrect. As per the Constitution, in case voting, every decision of the GST Council has to be a majority of not less than three-fourths of the of the members present. The vote of the central government has a weightage of one-third of the total and the votes of all the state governments taken a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast in

15. #55Practice set
    Consider the following statements: 1. During National Emergency, the Central government can give executive directions to a state on any matter. 2. During President's Rule, the state Council of Ministers is dismissed and the state legislature is suspended or dissolved.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 or 2
    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct l is correct: During National under Article 352, the state executive continue to function and exercise the to them under the Constitution. But during emergency, Centre becomes entitled to directions to a state on 'any' matter. Thus, governments are brought under the control of 2 is correct: During Emergency declared 356, the state executive is dismissed and the is either suspended or dissolved. The legislative powers of the state are assumed by Under this, the Parliament can delegate the make laws for the state to the President or to any specified by him

16. #56Practice set
    Artide 164 of the Constitution provides for the appointment of a Minister in charge of Tribal Welfare. In which of the following states, does the appointment of such a Minister has been provided by the Constitution? 1. Bihar 2. Jharkhand 3. Chhattisgarh 4. Odisha 5. RajasthanChoose the correct answer from the codes given below
    • A2, 3, 4 and 5 only
    • B1, 3 and 4 only
    • C2, 3 and 4 only
    • D1, 2 and 5 only
    Answer: (C) 2, 3 and 4 only
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct 164 deals with the appointment of a Minister of tribal welfare in certain states. The Minister be in charge of the welfare of Scheduled Castes classes or any other work. Presently, the to appoint such Minister in the four states. These Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and this provision was applicable to Bihar, and Odisha. The 94 th Amendment Act freed this obligation because there are no Scheduled Bihar now. This Amendment Act, however, to the states of Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand. This never been applicable to Option d is the correct l is incorrect: The Constitution to act as per his discretion in certain no such possibility has been envisaged in for the President. Hence, the for wider discretionary powers to the the 2 is incorrect: Article 163 states that if arises whether Governor is hy or under required to act in his discretion, the the Governor (and not President

17. #57Practice set
    With.respect to Ministry of Tribal Welfare, 140. Consider the following statements with which of the following statements is/a.re reference to 'Chief Minister' of a State: 1. The Chief Minister of a State acts as L The provision for appointing Minister in Chairman of the concerned zonal council charge of Tribal Welfare in some states by rotation. was introduced by 42nd Amendment Act. 2. The Chief Minister is the chairman of the 2. All the states having scheduled areas State Planning Board must create a separate ministry for tribal 3. The Chief Minister is a chairman of the welfare. Inter-State Council in rotation.Choose the correct answer from the options How many statements given above are given below: correct?
    • A1 only (a) Only one
    • B2 only (b) Only two
    • CBoth 1 and 2 (c) All three
    • DNeither 1 nor 2 (d) None
    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) None
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct being a diverse country and with a large Scheduled Tribes in some of the states, the a special Ministry of Tribal Welfare, Details of as follows: Statement 1 is incorrect - The provision with respect of Minister in charge of Tribal Welfare in was already present in the constitution since There was no changes made into this through Act. This is in consonance with Article 164 Indian Constitution. 94 th Amendment Act of 2006 changes which excluded Bihar and included Jharkhand in 2 is incorrect - This is a constitutional only in the states of Chhattisgarh, Madhya and Odisha and not in all the scheduled 164 says there shall be a Minister in charge of who may in addition be in charge of the welfare scheduled castes and backward classes or any other work

18. #58Practice set
    Which of the following amendments were made to the Indian Constitution through the Ninety First Amendment Act, 2003? 1. It limited the size of Central Council of Ministers to a maximum of of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. 2. The number. of ministers, including the Chief Minister, in a state government shall not be less than twelve. 3. It made changes in relation to the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.Select the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 only
    • B2 and 3 only
    • C3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3
    Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct are the main amendments brought in through the Ninety First Amendment l is incorrect: The total number of the Prime Minister, in the Central Council shall not exceed of the total strength of 2 is correct: It provided that the total number including the Chief Minister, in the Council in a state shall not exceed of the total the Legislative Assembly of that state. But, the number including the Chief Minister, in a state shall less than 12. 3 is correct: The 52nd Amendment Act of for the disqualification of the members of the state legislatures on the ground ot detection political party For this purpose, it in four Articles of the and added a (the Tenth Schedule) to the Constitution. This often referred lo,1., the 'Bnli-defoction the 91st Amendment Act of 2003 made one the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. It omitted provision i.e., disqualification on ground not to

19. #59Practice set
    What was the intention behind inclusion of Articles 371 to 371-J in the Constitution of India? 1. To meet the aspirations of the people of backward regions of the states 2. To deal with the disturbed law and order condition in some parts of the states 3. To deal with the border issues with neighboring countries in North-Western India. 4. To protect the cultural and economic interests of the tribal people of the statesSelect the correct answer using the codes given below
    • A1, 3 and 4 only
    • B1, 2 and 3 only
    • C1, 2 and 4 only
    • D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct 371 to 371-J in Part XXI of the constitution provisions for twelve states viz., Maharashtra, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and the constitution did not make any for these states. They have been incorporated various subsequent amendments made in the context of the states or conferment of statehood Union Territories. The intention behind adding to the constitution are following: To meet the aspirations of the people of backward regions of the states To protect the cultural and economic interests of the tribal people of the states To deal with the disturbed law and order condition in some parts of the states To protect the interests of the local people of the states. Hence Option 1, 2 and 4 is Pradicebook Option 3 is incorrect: To deal with border issues in India is not one of the reasons behind provisions to these states. If we see

20. #60Practice set
    With reference to the National Commission for Backward Class (NCBC), consider the following statements: 1. It was established as a constitutional body under the 103 rd Constitutional Amendment Act. 2. Its members are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. 3. It has the power to regulate its own procedure.How many statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct National Commission for Backward Classes first time constituted by the Central Govt as under The National Commission for Backward 1993. And so far, 7 NCBC has been constituted 7 to l is incorrect. The Act 2019 was related to reservation for Weaker Section (EWS) of the it was the 102nd Amendment Act of a constitutional status on the Commission. purpose, the amendment inserted a new Article the constitution. Hence, the Commission ceased to be body and became a constitutional 2 is correct. The Commission consists of a vice-chairperson and three other are appointed by the President by warrant under and seal. Their conditions of service and tenure are also determined by the 3 is correct. The Commission is vested power to regulate its own procedure. It means shall not be bound by the procedure laid any law or rules. It can make its own rules for regulations

21. #61Practice set
    With reference to the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities in India, consider the following statements. 1. Original constitution in 1950 provided for the Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities in India. 2. Every state has a regional office of Linguistic Minorities in its capilal cil y. 3. It ensures effective implementation of various safeguards for linguistic minorities agreed by the state government.How many statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities Sp al Linguistic Minorities (also known as Special Linguistic Minorities) is a constitutional body which under Article 350- B in Part XVII of the l is incorrect. Article 350-B was inserted by Constitutional (Amendment) Act, 1957. Constitution of India did not make any provision to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. was enacted based on the recommendations State Reorganization Commission 2 is incorrect. The Commissioner has at Allahabad (Uttar Pradesh). He has only at Belgaum (Karnataka), Nadu) and Kolkata (West Bengal). The under the Ministry of Minority 3 is correct. The commission fulfil It includes to ensure effective implementation safeguards provided for the linguistic minorities in and other safeguards, which are agreed to states / U. T.s

22. #62Practice set
    Which of the following statements regarding the Law Commission of India is incorrect?
    • AIt is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body
    • BIt can undertake Suo-motu review of the existing laws
    • CThe recommendations of the commission are not binding on the government
    • DThe Union Minister of Law and Justice is the ex-officio Chairperson of the commission
    Answer: (C) The recommendations of the commission are not binding on the government
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct concept of Union Territory was first introduced in Reorganization Act, 1956. The union territories created for a variety of reasons. These l is correct: Special treatment and care of people- During the British Rule, certain areas due tribal nature were constituted as 'scheduled districts' In 1956, they were constituted as the 'union the 7 th Constitutional Amendment Act (1956). Manipur, Tripura, Mizoram and Arunachal elevated to 2 is correct: Political and Union Territories like Delhi is capital of India while Chandigarh is capital of both Haryana and 3 is correct: Cultural Distinctiveness-Many Union Territories have a different culture than States as they were earlier under the rule (Daman and Diu) and French 4 is incorrect: Inter-state water dispute there is a dispute between two or more states on distribution and control of rivers flowing in two or It is not th

23. #63Practice set
    The Dinesh Goswami Committee was formed to on
    • ACivil services reforms
    • BElectoral reforms
    • CPolice reforms
    • DCentre state relations
    Answer: (B) Electoral reforms
    Explanation

    Option bis the correct Goswami was a politician in India. In 1989, he the Law and Justice Minister in the V.P. Singh 1990, the Dinesh Goswami Committee was formed recommendations on electoral reforms. Important Tips The Recommendations of Dinesh Goswami Committee It proposed political parties in-kind governmental money (state funding) It also suggested that a candidate should not be permitted to contest in more than two constituencies. Need for amendment of Anti-defection law to restrict disqualification where elected member voluntarily gives up his membership. Fresh delimitation based on 1981 census Reduce age of candidates from 25 to 21 for assembly seats Discourage non-serious candidates - increasing the security deposit to Rs for Lok Sabha and Rs for Assembly elections. The issue of disqualification should be decided hy the President/ Governor on the advice of the Election

24. #64Practice set
    Consider the following statements with reference to Internet Shutdowns in India: 1. The Information Technology Act, 2000 is the only law which deal with suspension of Internet services. 2. Competent authority to issue an order under the Suspension Rules, in ordinary circumstances, would be the district magistrate. 3. The right to access the Internet is one of the fundamental rights.How many statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly One
    • BOnly Two
    • CAll Three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only One
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct l is incorrect: The Information 2000, the Criminal Procedure Code 1973 Telegraph Act, 1885 are the three laws that deal of Internet services in 2017, the central government notified the of Telecom Services (Public Emergency or Rules under the Telegraph Act to govern 2 is incorrect: According to SC verdict - Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services or Public Service) Rules are the only be followed to suspend Internet services in the a "public emergency" or for it to be "in the interest verdict reiterated that the competent authority an order under the Suspension Rules, in would be the Secretary to the Ministry Affairs. Statement 3 is correct: In January 2020, the Supreme declared that the right to access the Internet is one fundamental rights. It is a part of Article 19 of along with the freedom to carry on any or occupation over the medium of the Internet

25. #65Full-length test
    If the Government of India wants to amend Article 368 of the Constitution, then which of the following procedures for amendment to be followed as by the Constitution of India?
    • AOnly by the simple rnajority of the Parliament
    • BOnly by the special majority of the Parliament
    • CBy the special majority of the parliament and the ratification of at least half of the state legislatuns
    • DArticle 368 of the constitution cannot be amended at an, as it would be violative of the Basic Structure of the Constitution
    Answer: (C) By the special majority of the parliament and the ratification of at least half of the state legislatuns
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct 368 of the Constitution of India deals with of the Parliament to amend the Constitution and Those provisions of the Constitution related to the federal structure of the polity can by a special majority of the Parliament and the consent of half of the state any amendment to Article 368 may change the amendment itself, thus may impact the role of states to the amendment of the Constitution. Amendment to Article 368 itself requires a of the Parliament and also the consent of half

More Polity topics