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General & Miscellaneous — UPSC Prelims Polity previous year questions — page 4

194 solved previous year questions on General & Miscellaneous, papers from 1991 to 2023, drawn from UPSC CDS, UPPCS, State PCS. Each carries the printed answer key and the explanation from the source compilation.

1. #121Practice set
   Which one of the following legislations in India directly implements the directive mentioned in Article 47 under Part IV of Indian Constitution?
   • AMahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act ( ), 2005
   • BNational Food Security Act, 2013
   • CRight to Education Act (RTE), 2006
   • DChild Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986
   Answer: (B) National Food Security Act, 2013
   Explanation

   Option b is the correct 47 of The Constitution of India is one of Principles which directs the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to health as among its primary duties and, in State shall endeavor to bring about prohibition drinks and drugs which are injurious to Food Security Act, 2013: As passed by Government has notified the National Act, 2013 with the objective to provide for nutritional security in human life cycle ensuring access to adequate quantity of quality food prices to people to live a life with dignity. act implements the directive mentioned in Article Part IV of Indian a is incorrect: Mahatma Gandhi National Guarantee Act ( ), 2005 fulfils 41 of the Indian Constitution. Which aims to education and public assistance rights for persons of unemployment, old age, sickness, disablement, c is incorrect: Part IV of Indian 45 and Article 39 (f) of

2. #122Practice set
   Which one of the Following statements is incorrect to Duties and rights?
   • AAccording to liberals, duties are more important, and rights are closely associated with duties
   • BConservatives focus on centrality of duty and decries the stress on rights
   • CMahatma Gandhi considered real rights as a result of performance of duty
   • DIn Marxist thought, there was no such thing as rights without duties and vice versa
   Answer: (A) According to liberals, duties are more important, and rights are closely associated with duties
   Explanation

   Option a is the correct are rules of interaction between people. They and obligations upon the actions of the state or groups. For example, if one has a right to means that others do not have the liberty to kill her. But the rights have real meaning only if duties. A duty is something that someone is required to do. Parents, for example, have a duty to of their a is incorrect. Duties are closely rights in liberal thought. The nature and this association, however, has greatly differed. In pre liberal societies where persons were caught in social people were not free to pursue their choices, their lives. Liberal transportation led to rights and duties were seen as correlated to rights. person possessed rights, then others - be it or the state as the case may be, were invested determinate set of duties to protect and promote If I have a right to physical security, others have not to violate

3. #123Practice set
   With reference to cooperative societies, consider the following statements: 1. A Cooperative society is a voluntary association of persons. 2. Cooperative societies are not driven by economic interests. 3. Cooperatives in all states in India are solely formed under the Co-operative Societies Act, 1912. 4. To form a cooperative society, at least ten persons are required.How many statements given above are correct?
   • AOnly one
   • BOnly two
   • COnly three
   • DAll four
   Answer: (B) Only two
   Explanation

   Option b is the correct l is correct. A cooperative society is a of persons, who join together with the motive ot the members. 'l'hc membership of a is voluntary. A person free to a and can also leave anytime as per his desire. be any compulsion for him to join or quit a procedurally a member is required to serve before leaving the society, there is no compulsion a member. Membership is open to all, irrespective religion, 2 is incorrect. Cooperative societies arc driven need to protect their economic 3 is incorrect. A Co-operative Society solely formed as per the provisions of the Co Act, 1912. Though the Act is still in force, it spedfkally repealed in almost all the Slates States have their own Cooperative Societies Act. Cooperntivef. in ctatec in arr formed respective Co-operative Societies 4 is eoaeet. The membership of a is open to all those who have a common minimum of ten members

4. #124Practice set
   Consider the following developments with respect to the cooperative movement in India: I. Establishment of National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD) 2. Establishment of the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) 3. Enunciation of National Cooperative Policy 4. Creation of Union Ministry of CooperationWhich of the sequences given in the options below correctly represents the chronology of the above developments?
   • A2-1-3-4
   • B1-2-4-3
   • C2-3-1-4
   • D2-3-4-1
   Answer: (A) 2-1-3-4
   Explanation

   Option a is the correct Dairy Development Board (NDDB) is an import,,nce hy an act of the in was founded. by Dr Verghese called 'India's Act, 1981: The National Bank for Agriculture Development (NABA was passed in 1981 was set up in 1982 to provide re-finance Cooperative Banks and to supplement the resources Banks and Regional Rural Banks to flow to the agriculture and rural Cooperative Policy (2002): In 2002, of India enunciated. a National The objective of the Policy is to facilitate an of cooperatives in the of ation was neaten in 2021 hy relalell lo uperalion and the business of the erstwhile Ministry of and Farmers Welfare

5. #125Practice set
   In the context of assessing a good democracy among the following is odd one out. need to ensure
   • Afree and fair elections
   • Bdignity of the individual
   • Cmajority rule
   • Dequal treatment before law H
   Answer: (C) majority rule
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct is better than any other form of government to the of the people. It is not the but views of all the representatives are taken rule by the majority is not a democracy. It can with the rule of the majority community. happens, democracy ceases to exist. Hence, it is not element of is a type of government in which supreme invested in the people and exercised by them directly through representation

6. #126Practice set
   Consider the following statements in the context of Doctrine of Colourable Legislation: 1. It holds that the union and state legislatures should not encroach upon each other's domain. 2. The courts will look into the object of the law and not motives of the legislatures while deciding on its validity. 3. State legislature is barred from re-enacting the same law if the statute is found to be invalid due to legislative incompetence.How many of the above statements are correct?
   • AOnly one
   • BOnly two
   • CAll Three
   • DNone
   Answer: (A) Only one
   Explanation

   Option a is the correct 1 is incorrect. The doctrine of is based on the maxim that what one cannot that cannot be done indirectly. It is applied state legislatures have transgressed their power in the Constitution while enacting a law. It characterized as a fraud on the Constitution legislature can violate the Constitution by employing doctrine of Pith and Substance holds that the state legislatures should not encroach upon 2 is correct. The court will look into the and character of the legislation and for that its or design to make law on a subject is relevant and not its motive. If the law enacted by the legislature is substance and in reality, beyond the competence of enacting it, it will be ultra vires and void, it apparently purports to be within the the legislature enacting it. It is the substance of that is material and not merely the form or 3 is incorrect. Further, if a statute

7. #127Practice set
   The Indian Constitution contains the "Full Faith and Credit" clause, which is related to: 1. Any official record made by a public servant in the discharge of his official duties 2. Public records of each state 3. Executive acts of the government of a stateWhich of the above options is/are correct?
   • A3 only
   • B2 only
   • C1 and 3 only
   • D1, 2 and 3
   Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
   Explanation

   Option d is the correct Under the Constitution, the jurisdiction of each state to its own territory. Hence, it is possible that and records of one state may not be recognised state must recognize and respect the proceedings, laws records of other remove any such difficulty, Constitution lays down faith and credit is to be given throughout the India to public acts, records and judicial proceedings Centre and every state. Hence, Option 2 is clause is primarily invoked to enforce the an union, a state refusing to recognize acts and records state may give rise to confusion and avoids inter-governmental l is correct. The expression 'public record' official book, register or record made by a in the discharge of his official 3 is correct. The expression 'public acts' legislative and executive acts of the government

8. #128Practice set
   Which of the properties/ income of the states among the following are exempted from Central taxation? 1. Offices of state government departments. 2. Equity Debt Investments made by the state government. 3. Premises of state Public Sector Enterprises. 4. Machines imported for road construction, or tunnel digging by the state government.Select the correct answer using the code given below
   • A1 and 2 only
   • B2 and 3 only
   • C3 and 4 only
   • D1, 3 and 4 only
   Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
   Explanation

   Option a is the correct answer 1 is correct: Any property/ income/ asset used by the state governments to carry out their (carry out the roles and duties of to them by the constitution) are exempt by the Central 2 is correct: The government, both at in the states, makes investments in various assets like and debt fonds. Such assets, although are exempt from central taxation (such as tax, dividend distribution tax, capital etc), as it is in the service of providing public sovereign function) by the state 3 is incorrect: The Constitution mentions or income of corporations or companies the state government are not exempt from even if they are in the service of the 4 is incorrect: The Supreme Court, in opinion in 1963, held that the immunity a state in respect of Central taxation does not extend or Custom duties. This means that if a state even if it is for a public purpose, like digging tun

9. #129Practice set
   Consider the following statements with reference to the borrowing powers of the states in India: 1. States need to obtain the Centre's consent to borrow, if the state is already indebted to the Centre. 2. The states cannot give the security of the Consolidated Fund of State for borrowing.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   • A1 only
   • B2 only
   • CBoth 1 and 2
   • DNeither 1 nor 2
   Answer: (A) 1 only
   Explanation

   Option a is the correct answer constitution has provided for provisions for Union government to raise resources from l is correct: A state cannot raise any loan consent of the Centre, if there is still outstanding of a loan made to the state by the Centre or in which a guarantee has been given by the 2 is incorrect: A state government can India upon the security of the Consolidated the State or can give guarantees, but both within fixed by the legislature of that state. Thus, both Union Governments have to give the security of Consolidated

10. #130Practice set
    Under the constitution of India which of the following taxes are levied, collected and retained by the state governments? 1. Surcharge on tax 2. Land revenue 3. Entertainment tax 4. Professional taxes. 5. Any cess levied for the specific purpose 6. Taxes on goods carried by inland waterways. ySelect the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1, 3 and 6 only
    • B2 and 3 only
    • C2, 3, 4 and 6 only
    • D1, 4 and 6 only
    Answer: (C) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct answer 268 to 293 in Part XU of the Constitution deal State financial l and 5 is incorrect: Both Surcharge and cess collected and retained by the central 2 is correct: Land revenue is a tax levied on and it is levied, collected and retained by the 3 is correct: Entertainment tax is any tax any form of commercial entertainment, such as exhibitions, sport events etc., Entertainment levied, collected and retained by 4 is correct: Professional tax not can be levied, collected and retained by the 6 is correct: It is true that the taxes 011 goods carried by inland waterways (or roawill collected and retained by the state government

11. #131Practice set
    Why India is called as the "Union of States" in the Constitution? 1. Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation. 2. States have no right to secede from the federation. 3. Two or more states can override the Union government in law making.Select the correct answer from the codes given below
    • A1 and 3 only
    • B1 and 2 only
    • C1, 2 and 3
    • D2 and 3 only
    Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct l and 2 are correct. According to Dr B the phrase 'Union of States' has been 'Federation of States' for two reasons: one, the is not the result of an agreement among like the American Federation; and two, the no right to secede from the federation. The a Union because it is indestructible. The country is whole and divided into different state:; only for of 3 is incorrect. There is no such provision in which allows two or more states to override government in law making

12. #132Practice set
    Consider the following statements with respect to the Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021: 1. It empowers central government to determine the terms and conditions of services of the members of the tribunals. 2. The Chairperson of the tribunals will be appointed by the central government on the recommendation of Chief Justice of India. 3. Any member of the tribunal can be removed by the central government on the recommendation of Search-cum- Selection Committee.How many statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct Tribunals Reforms Act, 2021 sought to dissolve that functioned as appellate bodies to hear various statutes, and transferred their existing judicial forums such as a civil court or a l is correct. The Act empowered the to notify rules on: composition of search-cum selection committees, qualifications of tribunal their terms and conditions of service (such as and 2 is incorrect. The Chairperson and Members Tribunals will be appointed by the central the recommendation of a (and not of India). The consist of the Chief Justice of India, or a Supreme nominated by him, as the Chairperson (with two Secretaries nominated by the central government, sitting or outgoing Chairperson, or a retired Judge, or a retired Chief Justice of a High Court, Secretary of the Ministry under which the Tribunal (with no voting 3 is correct. It states that the central on the recommendation o

13. #133Practice set
    With. regard to Lok Adalat and Permanent Lok Adalat, Consider the following statements 1. The permanent Lok Adalat hears disputes regarding public utility service, while ml, Practkebook the Lok Adalat can hear all civil and compoundable criminal cases. 2. The final decision of permanent Lok Adalat can be challenged in court while the final decision of Lok Adalat is binding on parties. 3. The pecuniary jurisdiction of permanent Lok Adalat is less than 1 crore rupees, while there is no such limit on pecuniary jurisdiction of the Lok Adalat. 4. Both the Permanent Lok Adalat and Lok Adalat have jurisdiction over pending and pre-litigation matters.How many statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll four
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct 1 is correct. The permanent Lok Adalat regarding public utility service, while the can hear all civil and compoundable criminal o o k Statement 2 is incorrect. The final decision of both Lok Adalat and Lok Adalat is final and 3 is correct. The pecuniary jurisdiction Lok Adalat is less than 1 crore rupees, while no such limit on pecuniary jurisdiction of the Lok 4 is incorrect. Permanent Lok Adalat over pre-litigation matters only. But Lok jurisdiction over pending and pre-litigation matters

14. #134Practice set
    Consider the following statements: 1. In case of a Compoundable offence, the complainant can enter into a compromise with the accused. 2. In case of a non-cognizable offence, the police can arrest an accused without a warrant.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (A) 1 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct l is correct. Compoundable offences are where, Lhe complainant (one who has filed the the victim), can enter into a compromise, and agrees the charges dropped against the accused. are less serious criminal offences. In some permission is required before 2 is incorrect. Cognizable offence means for which a police officer may arrest Cognizable offences are usually serious in cognizable offences, the police can initiate the case without seeking permission from the case of a non-cognizable offence, the police the accused without a warrant us well as cannot investigation without the permission of the court

15. #135Practice set
    Consider the following statements: 1. A tribunal is an administrative body established for the purpose of discharging quasi-judicial duties. 2. Administrative Tribunals created under Article are not bound by technical rules of Indian Evidence Act of 1872. 3. All tribunals are not courts, though all Courts are Tribunals.How many statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (C) All three
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct I is correct. Tribunal is an administrative for the purpose of discharging duties. An Administrative Tribunal is neither a Court executive body. It stands somewhere midway Court and an administrative body. The basic test of within the meaning of Article 136 is that it is authority (other than Court) vested with power of the 2 is correct. Administrative Tribunals Article have been freed from technical rules Evidence Act, 1872 and procedural shackles of of Civil Procedure, 1908. At the same time, they vested with the powers of Civil Court in respect of including the review of their own decisions and by the principles of natural 3 is correct. According to the Supreme Court, are not courts, though all Courts are word 'Courts' is used to designate those Tribunals set up in an organised State for the Administration By Administration of justice is meant the exercise powe

16. #136Practice set
    Consider the following statements regarding the National Green Tribunal (NGT): 1. NGT has no authority to give relief and compensation for damages to aggrieved persons. 2. The Tribunal is mandated to make disposal of applications finally within 6 months of filing of the same. 3. NGT has no jurisdiction over the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, and the Indian Forest Act, 1927.How many statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct l is incorrect. The National Green Tribunal established under the National Green Tribunal for effective and expeditious disposal of cases environmental protection and conservation of other natural resources including enforcement of right relating to environment and giving relief for damages to persons and 2 is correct. The Tribunal is mandated to endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals 6 months of filing of the same. It is a equipped with the necessary expertise to disputes involving multi-disciplinary Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but is guided of natural Statement 3 is correct. The NGT has the power to hear cases relating to environmental issues and the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, the Indian 1927, and laws enacted by states pertaining to forests

17. #137Practice set
    With reference to the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT), consider the following: 1. It is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985. 2. The Presiding officer is appointed by the Chief Justice of India. 3. It can hear and dispose off appeals against orders passed by the SEBI (Securities and Exchange board of India) only.How many statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct l is incorrect. SAT is a statutory body the provisions of the SEBI Act, 1992 and not Tribunals Act, 2 is incorrect. SAT consists of a Presiding two other members. The Presiding officer is the central government in consultation with the of India or his 3 is correct. Functions of SAT: To hear and dispose of appeals against orders passed by the SEBI or by an adjudicating officer under the SEBI To hear and dispose of appeals against orders passed by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development (PFRDA). To hear and dispose of appeals against orders passed by the Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India (IRDAI)

18. #138Practice set
    With reference to the Lok Adalats in India, consider the following statements: 1. Cases which are pending in courts of law cannot be taken up in Lok Adalats. 2 1 heir decisions are final and binding and no appeal against their decision lies with any court. 3. The jurisdiction of Permanent Lok Adalats include cases related to public utility services.How many of the above given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct Adalats were formed for settling disputes and negotiation between the parties of law. These were created under the Legal Act, l is incorrect: Cases which are in pre (not yet opened in a court of law), as well as those already pending in a court of law, both, can be the Lok 2 is correct: Legal Services Authorities that the decision of the Lok Adalats is final and binding on the 3 is correct: The Legal Services Authorities was amended in 2002 to provide for establishment Lok Adalats (Section 22-B). These have to specifically deal with cases related to services, like electricity, water supply, disposal system, etc. Important Tips There is no court fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat. If a matter pending in the court of law is referred to the Lok Adalat and is settled subsequently, the court fee originally paid in the court on the complaints/petition is

19. #139Practice set
    With reference to the difference between Criminal law and Civil law, consider the following statements: 1. Under Civil law, a complaint against an accused can only be filed by the Government and never by an individual. 2. Burden of proving the evidence in Civil and Criminal laws always lie on the complainant.Which of the above statement is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 and 2
    Answer: (D) Neither 1 and 2
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct l is incorrect. In Civil law, the initiation of a with the filing of a complaint by the aggrieved against the wrongdoer, whereas in the case is filed by the Government against the 2 is incorrect. Burden of proving the Civil Law lies on the plaintiff (complainant), whereas Law it lies on the Civil Law, the punishment is given in terms Here the wrongdoer reimburses the the amount of loss sustained by him as decided by Whereas in Criminal Law the guilty is punished with or without fine, or in some rarest of cases with death penalty. Important Tips Criminal offence usually begins with First Information Report (FIR). It can be lodged by (a) aggrieved person himself/herself (b) Any person who is aware of the offence like an eye witness, by the accused himself, hearsay account. (c) Officer in charge of police station/SHO

20. #140Practice set
    With reference to the differences between Cognizable offences and non-Cognizable offences, consider the following statements: 1. Unlike Non-cognizable offences, Cognizable offences are those in which the police can arrest an accused without a warrant. 2. All Cognizable offences are bailable whereas all non-Cognizable offences are non -bailable. 3. Generally, Non-cognizable offences are less serious in nature as compared to Cognizable offences.How many of the above given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct l is correct. Cognizable offences are those the police can investigate and arrest the a warrant. In non-cognizable offenses, the not have the power to arrest a person for a crime 2 is incorrect. The Cognizable offences bailable and non-bailable. Whereas are 3 is correct. Non-cognizable offences are or grave in nature. Examples: cheating, public nuisance, etc. Cognizable offences serious crimes. The Criminal Procedure that an offence that is punishable with for life, or imprisonment for more than shall be cognizable

21. #141Practice set
    With reference to the First Information Report (FIR), consider the following statements: 1. The term 'First Information Report' is defined in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. 2. A police station can register a 'Zero FIR' even if the offence was committed outside its jurisdiction. 3. Only a person, who is either the victim of offence or an eyewitness to the offence, can file the FIR.How many of the above given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct Information Report (FIR) usually mentions time and place of the offence, details the basic facts of the offence, including a description of the events. The Statement 3 is incorrect. Anyone can file an FIR - also has a legal right to get a free copy of the person approaching the police does not necessarily have from the police. be the victim of or an eyewitness to an l is incorrect: The term First Information Report Important is not defined in the Indian Penal Code (IPC), Code What is the difference between a complaint and an Criminal Procedure 1973, or in any other is the information given to a police officer as per the The defines a "complaint" as "any allegation of Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure orally or in writing to a Magistrate, with a view to his action under this Code, that some person has committed an offence, but does not include a police

22. #142Practice set
    "A larger and greater body should not exercise functions which can be carried out efficiently by one smaller and lesser, but rather the former should support the latter and help to coordinate its activity with the activities of the whole community:' Which among the following best describes the paragraph?
    • APrinciple of subsidiarity
    • BPrinciple of solidarity
    • CDoctrine of essentiality
    • DDoctrine of eclipse
    Answer: (A) Principle of subsidiarity
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct a is correct. The Principle of Subsidiarity: of subsidiarity holds that a larger and should not exercise functions which can be carried by one smaller and lesser, but rather the support the latter and help to coordinate its the activities of the whole community. Important Tips The Principle of Solidarity: The principle of solidarity is a socio-ethical and political concept which states that it is fair and just that benefits and obligations are justly shared between members of the society. The Doctrine of Essentiality: In the legal framework, the duclriue esseulialily is a llial has evolved to protect the religious practices that are essential or integral and does not violate any fundamental right. India being a secular country has discrete religious beliefs and to deny any is to violate the freedom of religion. The Doctrine of Eclipse: It is a doctrinal principle

23. #143Practice set
    Which of the following statements are the features of the cabinet committee? 1. The ad hoc type of cabinet committees is disbanded after their task is completed. 2. They can take decisions regarding the formulation of proposals which cannot be reviewed by Cabinet. Select the answer using the code given below
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (B) 2 only
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct I is correct. They are of 2 types- Standing The former is of permanent nature while are of temporary nature. The ad hoc committees from time to time to deal with specific are disbanded after their task is 2 is incorrect. They not only sort out issues proposals for the consideration of the cabinet, take decisions. However, the cabinet can review

24. #144Practice set
    Consider the following statements regarding Groups of Ministers 1. These bodies remain in the ministries until a new cabinet is formed. 2. The Cabinet at its discretion can review decisions taken by 3. The 2nd ARC recommended the abolition ofHow many statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct of are formed to to the cabinet on certain emergent critical problem l is incorrect: Groups of ad-hoc bodies. These are not permanent in heading the concerned ministries are the relevant and when the advice is are 2 is correct: Any decision taken by a Ad hoc Committee may be reviewed by the decisions in a matter taken by to review by the Cabinet at the latter's 3 is incorrect: The 2 nd ARC did not abolition of The 2 nd ARC observed that of are not able to meet regularly and to delays. It also recommended that should within a prescribed time limit

25. #145Practice set
    With reference to the 'State Cabinet Committees', consider the following statements: 1. They are set up by the chief minister. 2. Constitution doesn't provide their number, nomenclature and composition. 3. The decisions of the cabinet committees must be compulsorily approved by the full cabinet.How many statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct l and 2 are correct. They are set up by minister according to the exigencies of the requirements of the situation. Hence, their and composition vary from time to time. works through various committees called Committees not only sort out issues proposals for the consideration of the cabinet take 3 is incorrect. The Cabinet committees are which means if they take a decision, it is and does not need the stamp of approval of the However, the cabinet can review their decisions wants

26. #146Practice set
    Consider the following statements: 1. The revenues generated from cess is credited into Consolidated Fund of India. 2. Agriculture infrastructure and development cess (AIDC) is levied on crude palm oil, coal and lignite. 3. The proceeds collected through cess by the Union government must be shared with the states.How many statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly One
    • BOnly Two
    • CAll Three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only Two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct is a form of tax charged/levied over and above the liability of a 1 is correct. The revenue coming from first credited to the Consolidated Fund of India government may then, after due appropriation utilize it for the specified 2 is correct. On customs side the items AIDC are gold, silver, alcohol beverages, crude crude soyabean and sunflower oil, apples, coal, peat specified fertilizers, peas, kabuli chana, lentil and cotton. On the excise side, AIDC of Rs. 2.5 per litre has been petrol and Rs. 4 per litre on 3 is incorrect. The major difference taxes and cess is that the proceeds of a cess may not be shared with the state governments, while taxes have to be shared. Article 270 of the cess to be excluded from the purview of the of taxes that the Union government must share with

27. #147Practice set
    Which among the following states in India have Legislative Councils'? 1. Uttar Pradesh 2. Karnataka 3. Tamil Nadu 4. Maharashtra 5. Madhya Pradesh 6. TelanganaSelect the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1, 2, 5 and 6 only
    • B1, 3 and 5 only
    • C1, 2, 4 and 6 only
    • D1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
    Answer: (C) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct has bicameral system oflegislature. Just like two houses the state can also have two-legislative legislative council. Article 169 of Indian with abolition and creation of legislative councils In India only 6 states have legislative councils- Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, Pradesh

28. #148Practice set
    With reference to State Legislatures in India, consider the following statements: 1. The strength of State Legislatures has been fixed at 600 by the Constitution. 2. There is no upper limit on the reservation for SC/ ST in the State Legislatures. 3. The reservation for Anglo Indians in State Legislatures has been discontinued. 4. The maximum size of a Legislative Council is linked to the strength of the Legislative Assembly.How many statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly One
    • BOnly Two
    • COnly Three
    • DAll Four
    Answer: (C) Only Three
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct l is incorrect: The Constitution has not fixed of State Legislative Assemblies at one It has just prescribed a range, with the minimum strength being 60 and the maximum limit set at size is dependent on the population size of the 2 is correct: The Constitution has made reservation of seats in State Legislative Assemblies belonging to SC/ ST communities in order to due representation. There is no upper or lower the number of seats reserved for them. Rather the seats reserved for members of SCI ST communities and proportional to their population the total population of the 3 is correct: The Constitution had provided of I member from the Anglo-Indian the State Legislative Assembly. It is not a but rather it is at the discretion of the he feels the community is inadequately represented. was originally supposed to last only until it has been extended subsequently every

29. #149Practice set
    Which of the following is/are the Privileges available to the members of the State Legislatures? 1. The House has the right to hold secret meetings. 2. The House has the right to punish people with imprisonment for its contempt. 3. House members cannot be arrested for any civil or criminal matter during its session.Select the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B2 only
    • C1 and 3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3
    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct 194 of the Constitution provides for the immunities and exemptions enjoyed by the the State Legislature individually, as well as collectively to secure their effectiveness and independence in of their l is correct: As a part of the Collective by the constitution on the Houses of the the Houses are entitled to bar strangers from and hold secret meetings on sensitive 2 is As a part of the Collective by the constitution on the Houses of the the Houses are entitled to arrest (in reprimanding) any person for its contempt. This to a member of the House who has been found breach of privilege. Such a member may be expelled or 3 is incorrect: One of the Individual by the constitution on the members of the House they cannot be arrested while the session of the ongoing as well as for a period of 40 days preceding the session. However this privilege is applicable case of arre

30. #150Practice set
    Consider the following statements: 1. Maharashtra is the most urbanized state in India with more than half of the population living in urban areas. 2. In India, the Census Commission defines a metropolitan city as urban agglomeration having a population of over one million.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct l is incorrect: Goa is the most urbanised of the population living in urban areas. But goes by geographical area and total population, is the most urbanised state. In Kera la, 4 7. of in urban areas and in Maharashtra all the States and Union territories, the Territory of Delhi and the Union territory are the most urbanized with and population 2 is incorrect: In India, the Census a metropolitan city as urban agglomeration population of over four million. Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Chennai, Hyderabad, Bangalore, Ahmedabad, Pune, Nashik are those Indian cities that have over

31. #151Practice set
    With reference to Special provisions for some states in part XXI of the Constitution, separate development boards are provided for which of the following regions? 1. Vidarbha, Marathwada and the rest of Maharashtra 2. Saurashtra, Kutch and the rest of Gujarat 3. Hyderabad-Karnataka region 4. Naga Hills-Tuensang AreaSelect the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1, 2 and 3 only
    • B2, 3 and 4 only
    • C1, 2, 3 and 4
    • D1, 3 and 4 only
    Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct 371 to 371-J in Part XXI of the constitution provisions for twelve states viz., Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Karnataka. The intention behind them is to meet of the people of backward regions of the to protect the cultural and economic interests of people of the states or to deal with the and order condition in some parts of the states protect the interests of the local people of the states. Statements l and 2 are correct. Under Article 371, is authorized to provide that the Maharashtra and that of Gujarat would have for: the establishment of boards for (i) Vidarbha, Marathwada rest of Maharashtra, (ii) Saurashtra, Kutch and the 3 is correct. Under Article 3 71- the President to provide that the Governor of Karnataka special responsibility for the establishment of a board for Hyderabad-Karnataka 4 is incorrect. Article 3 71-A

32. #152Practice set
    Which of the following is/are part of the functions of the Goods and Services Tax Council? 1. It is empowered to exempt goods and services from the application of the GST. 2. It can establish a mechanism to adjudicate upon any dispute between the Centre and the states with respect to its recommendation.Select the correct answer using the code given below: Practiceb o o k NANCE H
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (B) 2 only
    Explanation

    Optionb is the correct l is incorrect. The Council can only to the Centre and the states, it cannot exempt goods and services from the application 2 is correct. The Council can establish to adjudicate upon any dispute which may respect to its recommendations or their implementation

33. #153Practice set
    Consider the following statements: 1. The salary, allowances and other conditions of service of the Central Vigilance Commissioner are similar to those of the Chairman of Union Public Service Commission. 2. The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the Government based on the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct 1 is correct. The salary, allowances conditions of service of the Central are similar to those of the Chairman and that of the vigilance commissioner are similar of a member of 2 is correct. The Central Vigilance set up by the Government in February, 1964 on of the Committee on Prevention headed by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance

34. #154Practice set
    Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the 'Enforcement directorate (ED) 'in India? 1. It is a specialized investigating agency under the Ministry of Home Affairs. 2. It is authorized to declare a person fugitive economic offender under Fugitive Economic Offenders Act 2018. 3. It investigates cases related to the of Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. lflr NANCESelect the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B2 and 3 only
    • C3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3 Regarding the National Human Rights Commission
    Answer: (C) 3 only
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct l is incorrect: Directorate of Enforcement specialized financial investigation agency under of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, India. It investigates contraventions of the provisions Exchange Management Act, 2 is incorrect: One of Enforcement function is processing cases of fugitive/s under Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018. is the special court (designated under Prevention Laundering Act, 2002) upon hearing declare an individual as a fugitive economic 3 is correct: ED also investigates offences laundering under the provisions of Prevention Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA)

35. #155Practice set
    Consider the following statements regarding Lokpal and Lokayukta Act: 1. All institutions which are fully or partly financed or aided by government are un- der the jurisdiction of Lokpal. 2. It provides for the constitution of special courts to hear and decide the cases arising out of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988. 3. It covers all entities receiving foreign do- nations registered under FCRA (Foreign contribution regulation act).How many statements given above are correct? Practkebook
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Exp) Option a is the correct l is incorrect. Institutions which are or financed the government are jurisdiction of Lokpal, but institutions aided are 2 is correct. It provides for the constitution courts to hear and decide the cases out of of Corruption Act, 3 is incorrect. It covers all entities from foreign source in context of FCRA of 10 lakhs and not less than this amount

36. #156Practice set
    With reference to the functioning of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), Consider the following statements. 1. It is the principal investigating agency to investigate misconduct of Central government employees. 2. CBI can take up suo-motu investigation of the criminal offences in the Union Territories (UTs). 3. CBI can investigate the criminal offences registered by the state police only when state government makes a request to CBLHow many statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct Central Bureau of lnvestigation (CBI) is a established in 1963 based on the the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Some of the information related to it l is correct. The CBI is the main of the Central Government. It plays an in the prevention of corruption and maintaining administration. It also provides assistance to the Commission and Lokpal. One of the of CBI is investigating cases of corruption, misconduct of Central government 2 is correct. CBI can take Suo-moto offences in the Union Territories (UTs). Although, Government can authorize CBI to investigate such in a State but CBI requires prior consent of the taking up investigation in the boundaries of a the Supreme Court and High Courts can to investigate a crime anywhere in the country consent of the 3 is incorrect. CBI can take up the the cases registered with the state polices in the (i) The concerned

37. #157Practice set
    Consider the following statements to Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI): 1. It is a statutory body established under Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. 2. The Director of CBI is provided with four-year tenure in office. 3. It acts as the "National Central Bureau" of Interpol in India.How many of the above given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct establishment of the CBI was recommended by Committee on Prevention of l is incorrect. The Central Bureau CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 2 is incorrect. The Director of CBI has security of a two-year tenure in office by the 3 is correct. The CBI acts as the Bureau" of Interpol in India. The Interpol the CBI coordinates requests for originating from Indian law enforcement the member countries of the Interpol. Important Tips Appointment of the CBI Director: The CBI director is appointed according to provisions under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act (1946) and amendments therein brought by the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. The appointment is made by the Centre on recommendation by a three-member Appointment Committee. The appointment committee compr

38. #158Practice set
    NITI Aayog is the premier policy 'Think Tank' of the Government of India. In this context, consider the following statements: 1. One of the objectives of NITI Aayog is to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government. 2. The regional council of NITI Aayog is headed by the union home minister. 3. The erstwhile Planning Commission was established by an executive resolution whereas NITI Aayog is established under a Legislative Act.How many of the above given statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct January 1, 2015, the NITI Aayog (National Transforming India) was established as the successor planning commission. NITI Aayog is the premier Tank' of the Government of India, providing and policy l is correct: The NITI Aayog will to formulate credible plans to the and aggregate these progressively at higher levels It will ensure special attention to the sections that may be at risk of not benefitting adequately 2 is incorrect: Regional Council of NITI are formed to address specific issues and more than one state or a region. These are a specified tenure. These are convened by the It comprises of the following

39. #159Practice set
    Consider the following statements: 1. No political party can conduct election campaign through social media during silence period. 2. Filing of false declaration by a candidate in an election is an electoral offence. 3. There is no bar on campaigning expenses for candidates contesting legislative council elections of a state.How many of the above statements are correct?
    • AOnly One
    • BOnly Two
    • CAll Three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only Two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct l is correct. Section 126 of the RP Act, 1951, inter alia, prohibits election campaign activities through processions, social media etc., and displaying matter by means of television and similar silence period of 48 hours before the completion of elections as the "silence 2 is incorrect. Filing of false declaration by in an election is not an electoral offence. As it only attracts Gix months' jail 3 is correct. As of now, council elections of a state don't have a bar expenses

40. #160Practice set
    Which of the following are the characteristic features of the Party System in Indian Polity since independence? 1. Dominance of Personality Cult over Ideology 2. Party Factions and Defections 3. Lack of effective Opposition 4. Two Party system 5. Shadow Cabinet in OppositionSelect the correct option using the code given below
    • A1, 2 and 3 only
    • B2, 3 and 4 only
    • CL 3 and 5 only
    • D1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
    Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct l is correct: Elections in India have always seen being propelled under the leadership of a Rather than focus on the individual demerits of the leader standing for election from constituency regardless of the party he/ to, in India most people give their vote in favour of which they choose due to their faith in the vision of the leader of that party. Ideologies ultra-nationalism, capitalism have to do with people's decisions in elections in India, people don't even have literacy, so an complex political ideologies and commitment to them practical. Most parties have similar policies as India is 2 is correct: Politics in India, especially after has been dominated by factions and splits parties over rising ambitions and to greed MPs and MLAs had begun to switch will for financial gains, sometimes thrice in a day. a destabilizing effect on Indian polity and the democr

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