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Environmental Governance — UPSC Prelims Science & Environment previous year questions — page 3

149 solved previous year questions on Environmental Governance, papers from 1994 to 2023, drawn from UPSC CSE Prelims, UPPCS, UPSC CDS. Each carries the printed answer key and the explanation from the source compilation.

1. #81Practice set
   With reference to Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART), consider the following pairs: 1. In Vitro Fertilisation outside fertilisation the female body. 2. Artificial Fertilisation within Insemination the female body 3. Gamete Intra Transfer of a Fallopian donated ovum into Transfer the fallopian tube of femaleHow many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
   • Aonly one
   • Bonly two
   • CAll three
   • DNone
   Answer: (C) All three
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct l is correct: In vitro fertilisation (IVF) is a type treatment where fertilisation occurs in a of within the body. It involves extracting one eggs from an ovary and placing them in a petri donated sperm. Test tube baby programme is one popular methods of this 2 is correct: In artificial insemination, place within the female body. It. involves directly into a woman's uterus to increase the fertilisation. It is used to correct Infertility cases inability of the male partner to inseminate the female to very low sperm counts in the 3 is correct: Gamete intra fallopian transfer three persons. Transfer of an ovum a donor into the fallopian tube of another female produce one, but can provide a suitable fertilisation and further development

2. #82Practice set
   In the context of recent advances in 3 D hioprinting. of above activities can be successfully carided out? 1. Functional human skin 2. Load-bearing bones 3. Functional liver tissues 4. Replace lengthy clinical triais.Select the correct answer using the codes given below
   • A1, 2 and 3 only
   • B2 and 4 only
   • C1, 3 and 4 only
   • D1, 2, 3 and 4
   Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
   Explanation

   Option d is the correct answer. Bioprinting is a form of additive manufacturing that uses cells and other biocompatible materials as "inks", also known as bioinks, to print living structures layer-by-layer which mimic the behavior of natural living systems. Option I is correct - Scientists have developed a new bioprinter that can create totally functional human skin, which can be used for transplants as well as testing of cosmetic and pharmaceutical products. It replicates the natural structure of the skin, with a first external layer, the epidermis with its stratum corneum, which acts as protection against the external environment, together with another thicker, deeper layer, the dermis. This last layer consists of fibroblasts that produce collagen, the protein that gives elasticity and mechanical strength to the skin. Option 2 is correct - Researchers from Indian Institute of Technolog

3. #83Practice set
   What are the advantages of Liquid Nano Urea over conventional Urea? 1. It is better absorbed by the plant leaves. 2. It has a higher shelf life as compared to conventional urea. 3. It will significantly reduce water consumption for irrigation. 4. It will help in decreasing the air pollution.Select the correct answer using the code given below
   • A2 and 3 only
   • B1 and 4 only
   • C1, 2 and 4 only
   • D1,3 and 4 only
   Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct '1 is correct: Uquid nano urea is sprayed the. leaves and gets better absorb eel by the urea fails to have the desired impact on it is often applied incorrectly on the plants. This leads efficiency of conventional urea of about of liquid nano urea to be as high as 2 is correct: Liquid nano urea has higher as compared to conventional urea. It has a shelf life of and farmers need not be worried about "caking" when the 3 is incorrect: There is no relation liquid nano urea and significant water reduction use. Liquid nano urea releases nitrogen which is component of 4 is correct: The imbalance use of leads to most of the nitrogen in it is either get lost as a gas, which results in air pollution. Nano a revolutionary product which will help in solving by reducing the use of urea by up to 50 Nano Urea is an eco-friendly product

4. #84Practice set
   Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding hydroponics, a farming technique? 1. It allows the cultivation of plants without using soil. 2. Water usage in hydroponics is more than that of traditional farming. 3. In hydroponics, chemical fertilizers cannot be used.Select the correct answer using the code given below
   • A1, 2 and 3
   • B2 and 3 only
   • C1 only
   • D1 and 2 only
   Answer: (C) 1 only
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct 1 is correct. Hydroponics is a method of without the use of soil. It is the practice of in a nutrient-rich solution. With this technique, with a solution of water and nutrients for plants Since, in hydroponics plants are not grown on soil, can help to reduce the nutrient loss from soil on 2 is incorrect. Hydroponics uses much less traditional farming. Hydroponics uses up to than traditional farming. Hydroponics issues within the food system-water scarcity shortages 3 is incorrect. The nutrients used in can come from many different sources, excrement, duck manure, purchased chemical artificial nutrient solutions

5. #85Practice set
   With reference to the agricultural practice of apiculture, consider the statements. 1. Harvesting honey is normally done every month throughout the year. 2. Bee-keeping practice is not bound by the locational factor. 3. Apis Indica is one of the most common bee species reared in India.How many of the above statements are correct?
   • AOnly one
   • BOnly two
   • CAll three
   • DNone
   Answer: (A) Only one
   Explanation

   Option a is the correct is the process of beekeeping, involving all the sector: knowledge of bees, bee products, their uses trade and equipment and wax are the two economically important bee l is the honey is done by smoking the bees parts which needs to be harvested and cut the are normally possible during and shortly after main flowering seasons, namely takes four to six months for a new hive to produce to harvest. Many expert beekeepers recommend not any honey from a new hive until it has it through one 2 is incorrect. Selection of suitable location the beehives is very important point to bee-keeping. Bee-keeping can be practiced in any there are sufficient bee pastures of some wild orchards and cultivated 3 is correct. Apis Indica is also referred to Indian bee. It can be easily domesticated and is used for honey production in India. The of honey is 2 to 5 kg per colony

6. #86Practice set
   What are the risks and issues associated with nuclear energy? 1. Creation of harmful radioactive waste. 2. Significant release of radioactive substances in air in case of nuclear accidents 3. Used nuclear fuel cannot be processed. 4. Difficulty in storage of used fuel.Select the correct answer using the code given below
   • A1, 2 and 4 only
   • B2 and 4 only
   • C1, 2 and 3 only
   • D1, 2, 3 and 4 Practiceboo
   Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 4 only
   Explanation

   Option a is the correct 1 is correct: A major environmental to nuclear power is the creation of radioactive as uranium mill tailings, spent (used) reactor other radioactive wastes. These materials can and dangerous to human health for 2 is correct: Nuclear accidents. does occur, but when it happens, it can lead consequences to people arid the prime example of a "major nuclear accident" is one a reactor core is damaged and significant radioactive isotopes are released in air, such as in disaster in 1986 and Fukushima nuclear 3 is incorrect: Used nuclear fuel has long to extract fissile materials for recycling and the volume of high-level waste. A significant plutonium recovered from used fuel is currently MOX 4 is correct: Storage and disposal of used fuel is hindrance in nuclear energy. Used nuclear fuel is either wet or dry storage facilities, before being disposed of. When used fuel is

7. #87Practice set
   We have been using nuclear energy for generation of electricity/power. Many of the nuclear power plants use nuclear fission. However, scientists have also promoted using nuclear fusion for generating power in recent past. In this context, Consider the following statements about the advantages of using nuclear fusion for power generation: 1. It doesn't produce any high activity or long-lived radioactive waste. 2. It doesn't pose any risk of meltdown or nuclear chain reaction. 3. The fuel used for fusion cannot be enriched and exploited to make nuclear weapons.How many of the statements given above are correct?
   • AOnly one
   • BOnly two
   • CAll three
   • DNone
   Answer: (C) All three
   Explanation

   Option c is the correct (International Thermonuclear Experimental an international nuclear fusion research and aimed at creating energy through a similar to that of the Sun. It uses Tokomak reactor out fusion 1 is correct: The.Nuclear fusion high activity, long-lived nuclear waste. The in a fusion reactor is to be for the materials to be recycled cir reused within However, fission reactors release radioactive uranium mill tailings and spent (used) reactor 2 is correct: If any disturbance occurs, it to reach and maintain the for fusion, as the plasma cools within the reaction stops. Hence, a reactor The quantity of fuel present in the vessel at any is enough for a few seconds only and there is no a chain reaction. Unlike in fission reactors, where meltdown is very high. For example, Chernobyl disaster in fission reactors. Statement 3 is correct: Fusion doesn't employ like uranium and plut

8. #88Practice set
   Consider the following statements with reference to the Fast Breeder Reactors: 1. Fast Breeder reactors produce more fissionable material than they consume to generate energy. 2. Electricity generated by Fast Breeder Reactors can be a good source of green energy. 3. Currently two fast breeder reactors are operating in India.How many of the above statements are correct?
   • AOnly one
   • BOnly two
   • CAll three
   • DNone
   Answer: (B) Only two
   Explanation

   Option b is the correct 1 is correct: Fast Breeder Reactor more fissionable material than it consumes to 1 The coll! of a breeder reactor l'lss,ile vranium and atoms that split easily nd relea.se energy H heat and Neutrons urlng this reaction are absorbed by a "blanket" of fertile urrounding the oore, Fertile mnlum, to split than uranium, into plutonium whtm 'tabs orbs neutrons. conventional that use water to transfer heat, a reeder liquid sodium. Z The sodium surrounding he sodium does no! slow the !he core flows through a heat eutrons Uke water, and a cluster of neutrons are more metal tubes, and absorbed by the fertile !r,msfers Its lo a uranium to craate plutonium. !leparate stream Fig. How a generate energy. This special type of reactor is designed to extend the nuclear fuel supply for electric power generation. A breeder reactor employs either uranium-238 or thorium, of which sizab

9. #89Practice set
   Hyperspectral imaging is being used regularly in modern day machines. Which among the following are applications of this technique? 1. Detecting freshness of meats and fruits 2. Remote Sensing 3. Tracking pollution levels 4. Early diagnose of cancerSelect the correct answer using the code given below
   • A1 and 4 only
   • B2 and 3 only
   • C1, 3 and 4 only
   • D1, 2, 3 and 4
   Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
   Explanation

   Option d is the correct imaging makes use of at wavelengths both inside and outside of spectrum to characterize materials and information collected by a hyperspectral a hyperspectral cube, is actually addition to width and height, there is a depth with the wavelength at which each taken, meaning that the hyperspectral cube is simply of several applications of this technique are as Hyperspectral imaging is widely used in the It is used in different discipline of food detection in apples, freshness of the fish, citrus distribution of sugar in melons, and sorting For example apple bruise is not visible on the and it takes few days to show dark color mark. In of scenario hyperspectral imaging techniques can to track the early stage of bruise for the quality option 1 is Sensing: In remote sensing technology it is to distinguish earth surface features, each different spectrum band. (Hence, opt

10. #90Practice set
    With reference to the Hyperspectral Imaging technology, consider the following statements: 1. It is a technology that captures hundreds of images at different wavelengths of the same object or spatial area. 2. It can improve the monitoring of pollutants in the atmosphere.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct imaging samples a wide variety of the light spectrum to provide a rich dataset and of interest not visible to single-bandwidth 1 is correct: Hyperspectral imaging is a in remote sensing in which an imaging hundreds of images at different wavelengths same spatial area/ object. It captures and analyses of an object from literally hundreds of narrow, bands, and across a wider range of visible to the naked 2 is correct: Hyperspectral imagery has to significantly improve the ease of in the atmosphere. This includes the study monitoring of particulate matter or greenhouse gasses carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide in the atmosphere over time. Important Tips Modern digital cameras can sense energy in limited portions of the electromagnetic spectrum. Whereas, hyperspectral imaging has capability to generate large data and identify unique spectral signatures or

11. #91Practice set
    With reference to 'Additive Manufacturing', consider the following statements: 1. It is a process of creating a physical object by cutting away material from a solid piece of material. 2. It requires the creation of a virtual design of the object using a modelling program. Practice 3. Compared to the traditional manufacturing processes, additive manufacturing reduces material waste during the manufacturing processes.How many of the statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct Ministry of Electronics Information Technology a "National Strategy on Additive aims to position India as a global hub for development and 1 is incorrect: Additive manufacturing, as printing, is a process of creating a by laying down successive layers of material. is controlled by a computer, which receives from the CAD software and controls the The computer ensures that the printer the object layer by layer, adding material until is 2 is correct: Under additive a virtual design of the obj_ect is created using modeling program based on Computer Aided The CAD software is used to create a digital of the object, which can then be converted into object using an additive manufacturing digital model contains detailed information object's shape, size, and internal structures, which to guide the additive manufacturing 3 is correct: In traditional such as subtractive machi

12. #92Practice set
    The term "Proof-of-Stake mechanism is best described by which of the following statements?
    • AIt is a cryptocurrency consensus mechanism used to verify new cryptocurrency transactions
    • BIt is a method to facilitate credit and debit card transactions by retail customers
    • CIt is a technique for demonstration of a product, service or solution in a sales context
    • DIt is a legal term used in courts, where the Defendant must provide proof in response to the case. book
    Answer: (A) It is a cryptocurrency consensus mechanism used to verify new cryptocurrency transactions
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct of stake is a consensus mechanism used to cryptocurrency transactions. Since blockchains centralized governing authorities, proof of stake is to guarantee that data saved on the network is consensus mechanism is a method for validating a distributed database and keeping the database is a blockchain. Proof-of-stake reduces the amount work needed to verify blocks and transactions. Important Tips A Point of sale (POS) is a device that is used to process transactions by retail customers. A cash register is a type of POS. A POS may be a physical device in a brick-and-mortar store, or a checkout point in a web-based store. Proof of concept (POC) is a demonstration of a product, service or solution in a sales context. Proof of concept (POC) is evidence obtained from a pilot project. For example, in drug development, clinical trials are used to gather proof of concept for

13. #93Practice set
    With reference to Torrefaction Technology consider the following statements: 1. It involves the heating of biomass in the absence of oxygen. 2. Weight is lost and energy is gained in Torrefaction compared to original biomass. 3. It is an indigenous technology developed by ICAR. ]How many of the above statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct 1 is correct. Torrefaction itwolves the biomass in the absence of oxygen to a temperature 200 to The structure of the biomass makes the material brittle, and more 2 is incorrect. In Torrefaction technology, is about and the energy loss is about So, and energy are lost in Torrefaction when compared 3 is incorrect. Torrefaction is a that can convert stubble into 'bio-coal'

14. #94Practice set
    Consider the following regarding Gelatin Sticks:statements 1. Gelatin sticks cannot be used without a detonator. 2. Its manufacture is regulated by Petroleum and Explosives Safety Organization (PESO). Practii:: Prior license 'is. requited to gelatin sticks but not to buy it.Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B1 and 2 only
    • C2 and 3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3
    Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct 1 is correct. Gelatin sticks are cheap used by industries for the purpose of construction related work, like building rails and tunnels etc. They cannot be used without 2 is correct. The manufacture is regulated and Explosives Safety Organization known as Department of Explosives. The under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, out administration work of the Explosive Act Explosives Rules 2008 3 is incorrect. In India, prior license is just to make, but also to sell and buy explosives. gelatin sticks also

15. #95Practice set
    Which of the following are the possible applications of Coal tar? 1. Manufacturing of naphthalene balls 2. Treatment of skin 3. Manufacturing of perfumeSelect the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 only
    • B1, 2 and 3 only
    • C2 and 3 only
    • D1 and 3 only
    Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct tar is a by-product of bituminous coal or black coal, which contains a tar-like bitumen, or asphalt. It is in form of viscous containing hydrocarbon compounds, derived coke, from the destructive distillation of coal in The possible applications of coal tar are as follow 1 is correct. Naphthalene also called white tar camphor is a white solid that evaporates easily. It in fuels such as petroleum and coal and has in mothballs and moth flakes. Naphthalene balls from coal 2 is correct.Coal tar belongs to a class of as keratoplastics. Typical coal tar products work the skin to shed dead cells from its top layer down the growth of skin cells. Dermatologists may and extracts of crude coal tar in skin treatment like of chronic eczema (Eczema, or dermatitis, is condition that causes patches of itchiness, and cracked ski Statement 3 is correct. Perfume uses several and subs

16. #96Practice set
    Which one of the following is the best description of the 'ecosystem?
    • AA closed relationship between animals and humans
    • BA system created by interaction of only flora and fauna of two different regions
    • CA system in which all living organisms interact with each other together with the non living organisms
    • DA geographical area in which 1 and, water and air interact with each other
    Answer: (C) A system in which all living organisms interact with each other together with the non living organisms
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct answer c is correct.: contain biotic or living parts, as well as abiotic factors, or nonliving parts; Biotic factors include plants, animals, and other organisms. Abiotic fiictors include rocks, temperature, and humidity. Every factor (biotic and abiotic factors) in an ecosystem depends on every other factor, either directly or indirectly. For instance a non biotic factor (temperature) often affects what plants (biotic) will grow there. Plants in an area influences the animal population there (this shows interaction among biotic factors). An ecosystem is a geographic area where plants, animals, and other organisms, as well as weather and landscape, work togetlier to form a bubble of life. Therefore it is true that the Ecosystem is a system in which all living organisms interact with each other together with the non living organisms. u. Solution: (a) Exp) Option a

17. #97Practice set
    Nitrogen is a process of converting relatively non-reactive atmospheric nitrogen into more reactive compounds like ammonia. Which of the following microorganisms are capable of fixing atmospheric nitrogen? 1. Azotobacter 2. Nostoc 3. Nitrosomonas 4. Anabaena 5. Nitrobacter 6. BeijernickiaSelect the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1, 3, 4 and 5 only
    • B2, 3, 5 and 6 only
    • C1, 2, 4 and 6 only
    • D1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
    Answer: (C) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct answer. Very fe'Y' living organisms can utilise the nitrogen in the form N2, available abundantly in the air. Only certain prokaryotic species are capable of fixing nitrogen. Reduction of nitrogen to ammonia by living organisms is called biological nitrogen fixation. Options 1, 2, 4 and 6 are correct. The nitrogen-fixing microbes could be free-living or symbiotic. Examples of free living nitrogen-fixing aerobic microbes are Azotobacter and Beijernickia while Rhodospirillum is anaerobic and Bacillus free-living. In addition, a number of cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and Nostoc are also free-living nitrogen-fixers. Options 3 and 5 are incorrect. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter do not take part in nitrogen fixation, instead in nitrification of ammonia ions. Practiceb o o k Important Tips As a part of nitrogen cycle, decomposition of organic nitrogen of dead plants and

18. #98Practice set
    Consider the following statements: 1. Eco-sensitivity is characterized by low levels of resilience that cannot be restored to its original form easily. 2. Acclimation is the compensatory adjustment of organism to change in the environment in natural condition. 3. Adjustments within a single organism that improve survival in response to environmental change is known as Acclimatization.How many of the above statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct 1 is correct: Eco-sensitivity is expected low levels of resilience, and hence is difficult to or restored if disturbed by external ultimate purpose of identifying ecologically eco-sensitivity is to promote regimes and conservation of the of the 2 is incorrect: Acclimation involves or morphological adjustments within a that improve performance or survival in environmental change. The extent of this constrained by the genome of the individual. It is by which an organism adjusts to a change in It generally refers to the ability of living adjust to changes in climate, and usually occurs in a of the 3 is incorrect: Acclimatization is adjustment of organism to change in in nature or natural condition is acclimatization. Adjustment to seasonal changes comes under acclimatization. between acclimation and acclimatization latter adjustment is made under natural the organism

19. #99Practice set
    With reference to Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ), consider the following statements: 1. Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) Notification was issued under the Environment Protection Act,1986. 2. Only projects under CRZ I and CRZ IV would need clearance from Ministry of Environment. EII rumtlll 3. Tempornry tourism facilities are permitted in beaches and in the "No Development Zone" (NDZ) of the CRZ areas. 4. Blue Flag certification to beaches is given under New Coastal Regulation Zones (CRZ) Notification 2018.How many of the statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll four
    Answer: (C) Only three
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct Regulation Zone: All the coastal stretches of estuaries, creeks, rivers and backwaters which by tidal action (in the landward side) up to from the High Tide Line (HTL) and the land Low Tide Line (LTL) and the 1 is correct: Coastal Regulation Zone was issued for the first time in 1991 under Protection Act, 1986. The main aim of is to protect the coastal 2 is correct: Under New Coastal (CRZ) Notification 2018 only projects under CRZ CRZ IV would need Environmental clearances from of 3 is correct: New Coastal Regulation Notification 2018 permits temporary in beaches and in the "No Development of the CRZ 4 is incorrect: The Blue flag certification is recognition conferred on beaches that criteria of cleanliness and environmental certification program is run by the international, nongovernmental, non-profit organization FEE (the Environmental Important Tips Categories

20. #100Practice set
    With reference to plastic and plastic waste disposal, consider the following statements: 1. Plastic disposal poses environmental problems as many of them are chemically inert. 2. Oxo-degradable plastics do not fragment into microplastics. 3. Bioplastics can be manufactured from Lactic Acid.How many of the statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct are large carbon-containing compounds which are composed of repeating units of compounds called I is correct: Most plastic is chemically will not react chemically with other plastic doesn't react chemically with most it doesn't decay. Therefore, plastic a difficult and significant environmental 2 is incorrect: Oxo-degradable plastics are of plastic materials that are commonly promoted In reality, they are conventional PE, PP, PET) containing additives that accelerate process. The major issue with is that they rapidly fragment into huge microplastics when exposed to a combination of 3 is correct: Polylactic acid (PLA) is a from lactic acid. It is biodegradable as well polyester made from renewable acid as the raw material is produced by glucose or sucrose and is refined to a high purity

21. #101Practice set
    Which of the to the predominance of ozone depletion over the Antarctica? 1. Low temperature present for extended time periods. 2. Reaction of gases with Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs). 3. Presence of Polar Vortex at the South pole.Select the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 and 3 only
    • B2 and 3 only
    • C3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3
    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct I is correct: The severe ozone by the ozone hole requires that low present over a range of stratospheric altitudes, over regions, and for extended time periods. are important because they allow liquid Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs) to 2 is correct: Reactions on the surfaces of solid Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs) can the relative abundances of the most reactive These reactions convert the reservoir forms of gases, chlorine nitrate and hydrogen chloride the most reactive 3 is correct: Stratospheric air in the polar relatively isolated from other stratospheric regions for in the winter months. The isolation comes of strong winds that encircle the poles, forming vortex, which prevents substantial motion of air out of the polar stratosphere. Once chemical in polar regions from reactions on PSCs, the those changes for many weeks to months. Ozone hole in particula

22. #102Practice set
    Environmental Impact Assessment (Elis a tool used to identify the environmental, social and economic impacts of a project prior to decision-making. Is it promulgated under which of the following Act?
    • AThe Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
    • BIndian Forest Act, 1927
    • CForests (Conservation) Act, 1980
    • DThe Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
    Answer: (D) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct 27 January 1994, the Union Ministry of Forests (MEF), Government of India, under (Protection) Act 1986, promulgated notification making Environmental Clearance for expansion or modernization of any for setting up new projects listed in Schedule 1 of

23. #103Practice set
    With reference to Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, 2006, consider the following statements: I. It was promulgated under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. 2. Public hearing is mandatory for the preparation of EIA Reports for all development projects. 3. State Forest Departments prepare the Environment Impact Assessment Reports.How many of the above statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct answer. I is. correct. The Environment Impact of 2006 was the Environment Protection Act of 1.986 was in 1994, that the government notified the Assessment norms for the first time through the of 1994. This was later replaced bythe 2006 2 is incorrect. Public hearing 'during of EIA Report is mandatory for-only,certairi development hearing during the preparation of EIA. report only in the case of Category A.and Category category projects like modernization of of roads and highway are 3 is incorrect. The EIA is prepared by proponent, not by the State Forest project proponent submits the EIA report the Control Board State Forest the project covers the forest lands)

24. #104Practice set
    With reference to the existing strategies of Bioremediation to remove pollutants from contaminated source, consider the following statements: 1. Mycoremediation uses mycobacterium to remove pollutants. 2. Bio Leaching uses plants to filter out pollutants from contaminated groundwater. 3. Land Farming is performed in the upper soil zone to treat contaminated soils.How many of the statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct 1 is incorrect: Mycoremediation is a form which uses fungi to decontaminate the is a bacterium that causes tuberculosis in 2 is incorrect: Bioleaching is the metals from their ores through the use of The metal extracted using bioleaching is conventional methods. Rhizofiltration is a form (use of plants to remove involves filtering contaminated groundwater mass of plant roots to remove toxic substances or 3 is correct: Land farming is a treatment process that is performed in soil zone. Contaminated soils are transported to site, mixed into the soil surface and over i.e tilled to aerate the mixture. This used to treat soil contaminated oily sludge and refinery wastes

25. #105Practice set
    Consider the following pairs: 1. Land farming It is ex-situ bioremediation technology. 2. Bioreactors It is in-situ method which uses indigenous microorganisms to biodegrade. 3. Biosparging It can be used to reduce concentrations of petroleum constituents that are dissolved in groundwater.How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct is the use of microbial species to clean up groundwater that has been contaminated by The bioremediation process stimulates of specific microbes that use the discharged as a source of food and 1 is correct. Land Farming is a Landfarming is an ex-situ waste that is performed in the upper soil zone or cells. Contaminated soils are mixed with such as soil bulking agents and nutrients, they are tilled into the 2 is incorrect. A bioreactor refers to any or system that supports a biologically A bioreactor is a vessel in which a is carried out which involves organisms active substances derived from such process can either be aerobic or anaerobic. In all bioreactor must provide the environmental for the culture. It is ex-situ 3 is correct. Biosparging is an in-situ that uses indigenous microorganisms organic constituents in the saturated zone. air (or oxygen) and nutrient

26. #106Practice set
    Torrefaction technology, recently seen in news, is related to what?
    • AIt can be used to tackle the issue of stubble burning
    • BIt is used. to convert coal to coking coal for use in steel industries
    • CIt is related to restoration of corals and stop the phenomenon of coral bleaching
    • DIt is a technology to convert saline water to potable fresh water for drinking
    Answer: (A) It can be used to tackle the issue of stubble burning
    Explanation

    /Option a is the correct is a Swedish technology and thermal process biomass into a coal-like material, which has characteristics than the original biomass. It can be convert rice stubble into 'bio-coal' and hence fight of stubble burning in north India

27. #107Practice set
    With respect to the concept of Agroforestry, consider the following statements: 1. Agroforestry refers to a practice of land management, wherein woody trees are grown alongside agricultural crops and livestock. 2. Under agroforestry system trees and crops can be grown and arranged both temporally and spatially. 3. India is the first country in the world to have officially adopted an Agroforestry Policy.How many of the above statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (C) All three
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct 1 is correct: Agroforestry refers to a practice management, wherein woody shrubs/ trees are agricultural crops and livestock, on the same 2 is correct: Under agroforestry system crops can be grown and arranged both spatially. Whether the combination of trees and arranged spatially (simultaneous growth) or one after the other on the same piece of the systems are deemed to be Agroforestry 3 is correct: In 2013, on the first day of on Agroforestry organised in Delhi, India by becoming the first country in the world to official National Policy on Agroforestry. Important Tips Three varieties of Agroforestry: Agrisilvicultural systems - combination of crops and trees, such as alley cropping or homegardens. Silvopastoral systems - combination of forestry and grazing of domesticated animals on pastures, rangelands or on-farm. Agrosilvopastoral systems - Integration of the

28. #108Practice set
    Which of the following is not classified as a forest produce as per Indian legislations/ laws? 1. Fruits harvested outside forests 2. Silk cocoons reared outside forests 3. Tendu leaves collected outside forests 4. Timber found outside forestsSelect the correct option using the code given below
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B1 and 3 only
    • C1, 2 and 3 only
    • D1, 2, 3 and 4
    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct 1 is correct: Fruits and plant parts of forest areas are not considered forest to the Indian Forest Act, all plants, leaves, fruits and flowers within a forest are classified as Forest 2 is correct: Animal parts like silk cocoons, or extracted from it is not considered a Forest Produce outside animal parts like horns, tusks, ivory, bones, if extracted from animals, whether wild or not, within forests is termed as Forest 3 is incorrect: Tendu leaves, whether extracted inside forests or outside of it, have been classified Produce by the Indian Forest Act, leaves are mostly sold by tribals to tobacco making bidis and their sale is an important for the 4 is incorrect: Timber, whether from a tree in or whether from outside a forest area, is classified Produce by the Indian Forest Act, 1927. Important Tips In India, the forests are governed by a host of regulations, som

29. #109Practice set
    Consider the following statements: 1. A lichen is a combination of a bacteria and a fungus. 2. Lichens are capable of initiating primary succession. 3. Lichens are indicators of air quality and are sensitive to sulphur-dioxide pollution.How many of the above statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct 1 is incorrect: A lichen is a peculiar combination alga and a fungus. It is an example of symbiotic cannot make its own food and depends on within the algae or cyanobacterium (green the fungus allows algae or cyanobacterium to grow in environment than it could otherwise 2 is correct: Lichens are capable of succession. They are typically, the first organisms bare rock. Therefore, it is one of the pioneer 3 is correct: Lichens are sensitive to pollution. Thus, lichen serve as good air pollution

30. #110Practice set
    With reference to the Indian Pangolin, consider the following statements: 1. They are distributed across high Himalayas and North-East India. 2. They are protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. 3. They are hunted for consumption as a protein source.How many of the above statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct 1 is incorrect. Indian Pangolin is a large by 11-13 rows of scales on the back. It is. in India, except the arid region, high the North-Eastern part of India. It can be found elevation of up to m. The species also occurs Pakistan, Nepal and Sri Lanka. The understood to occur in various types of tropical well as open land, grasslands, and degraded in close proximity to 2 is correct. The Indian Pangolin is under Schedule I of the Indian Act, 1972 and is also categorised as the International Union for Conservation of 3 is correct. Major threats to pangolins in hunting and poaching for local consumptive use a protein source and traditional medicine)

31. #111Practice set
    Which of the following statement is incorrect about Reserved and Protected Forests in India?
    • AThe activities like hunting and grazing are banned in reserve forest unless specifically permitted
    • BIn protected forest there is limited exploitation of resources
    • CBoth these protected areas are declared by respective state governments
    • DThese terms were introduced for the first time under Forest Conservation Act, 1980
    Answer: (D) These terms were introduced for the first time under Forest Conservation Act, 1980
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct answer. a is correct. The; reserved forests and differ in one important way:. rights to hunting, grazing, etc. in reserved forests are specific orders are issued b is correct. Protected ate those in occupation or at least the exploitation of limited. In protected areas, rights to activities like grazing are sometimes given to communities living fringes of the forest, who sustain their livelihood wholly from forest resources or c is correct. Reserved forests and protected declared by the respective state d is incorrect. A reserved forest and in India are terms denoting forests accorded a of protection. The term was first introduced in Forest Act, 1927 (and not by Forest 1980) in British Raj, to refer to certain forests under the British crown in British India

32. #112Practice set
    With respect to conservation reserve and community reserve which of the following statements is/are incorrect? 1. Initially these protected areas were not included in the Wildlife Protection Act 1972. 2. Both these protected areas are managed by State Board for Wildlife.Select the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (B) 2 only
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct 1 is correct: Community and conservation initially not part of the Wildlife Protection Act both came to existence as an outcome of Wildlife Protection Act 2 is incorrect: State Board for Wildlife have an immediate control over them is managed by Conservation and Community Reserve is managed Reserve Management Committee

33. #113Practice set
    With reference to the Biosphere Reserves (BRs), consider the following statements: 1. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was established as the first Biosphere Reserve in India. 2. Kachchh is the largest Biosphere Reserve in India 3. Core zone of a BR is protected under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. 4. No human activity is allowed in the Buffer zone of a BR.How many of the above statements are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll four
    Answer: (C) Only three
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct reserves are areas of terrestrial and ecosystems where both flora and fauna are concept of Biosphere Reserves was launched in a, part of the United Nations Educational, Scientific Organization 'Man and There are 18 Biosphere Reserves in these, 11 are part of the World Network of 1 is correct. In 1986, Nilgiri Biosphere established as the first Biosphere Reserve in 2 is correct. Kachchh is the largest in Biosphere Reserve: 3 is correct. Zonation of Biosphere Reserves: Core Areas Buffer Zone Transition Zone or Area of zone is a protected under the Wildlife 1972. Core Area includes protected areas that act points on the natural state of the by the biosphere allowed: non-destructive research and activities (such as ecotourism) are 4 is incorrect. Buffer Zone surrounds or to the core area. Activities are organized, do not hinder the conservation objectives of the but r

34. #114Practice set
    Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022? 1. The amendment has increased the number of schedules in the act to ten from previously six. 2. The act prohibited the commercial transfer of captive elephants for any purpose in India. 3. It empowers the Central government to regulate and stop the import and possession of invasive animal alien species. 4. Under the act, Gram Sabha has been given the powers to declare any animal as vermin.Select the correct answer using the code given below
    • A1, 2 and 3 only
    • B2 and 4 only
    • C1, 3 and 4 only
    • D3 only
    Answer: (D) 3 only
    Explanation

    Option d is the correct of India passed the Wildlife Bill, 2022 to give effect to India's the Convention on International Trade on of Wild Fauna and Flora ('CITE Statement 1 is incorrect: Previously, there were six wildlife act: protected plants (one), specially (four), and vermin species new act reduces the total number of schedules by: (i) reducing the number of schedules for animals to two (one for greater protection removes the schedule for vermin species, and ( ) schedule for specimens listed in the CITES (scheduled 2 is incorrect: In 2003, Wildlife was amended to prohibit trade in all captive any (non-commercial) transfer across state permission from the concerned chief Now, the Wildlife Protection Act,2022 permits or transport of a captive elephant for a any other purpose by a person having a valid 3 is correct: The act empowers the to regulate or prohibit the import, or prolifera

35. #115Practice set
    With reference to the Biosphere reserves (BR), consider the following statements: 1. Nilgiri was the first Biosphere Reserve notified in India. 2. A site to be recognised as BR must contain a protected and minimally disturbed core area. 3. Limited recreation, fishing and grazing activities are allowed in core zone of BR. 4. The management of BRs is the responsibility of the concerned State/UT.How many of the statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll four
    Answer: (C) Only three
    Explanation

    Option c is the correct is correct: Nilgiri is the first,Lndia. which was notifie.d.in. 1986. It contaip.s, part,: Bimdipur and. Maclu,malai,, Valley and Siruvani hills (Tamil Nadu, Ke,ala,aµq 2 is correct: The criteria for selection of sifes as laid down by the Core Group of Experts in site that must contain an effectively minimally disturbed core area of value. of: The core area should be typical of unit and large enough to sustain representing all tropic levels in 3 is incorrect: The core zone should be undisturbed. The core. zone is to be, kept all human pressures external to the systelll, reserves and wilderness portions of the are,a as core areas of 4 is correct: The Management of is the responsibility of the concerned,, with necessary financial assistance, guidelines and Technical expertise provided by Government. The State Government prepares Action Plan which is approved and Cen

36. #116Practice set
    Consider the following statements regarding the Chief Wildlife Warden in India: 1. The Chief Wildlife Warden is a statutory authority established under the Indian Forest Act,1927. 2. Chief Wildlife Warden in a state is appointed by the Government of the respective state. 3. He/she can grant permission to a person to enter in a sanctuary for conducting scientific research. mllllHow many of the statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct 1 is incorrect: The Chief Wildlife is the statutory authority, under the Act, 1972 (not under Indian Forest is responsible for the implementation of Act, 1972 in the State. He shall perform and exercise his powers by or under this Act subject general or special directions, as the State give, from time to 2 is correct: Section 4 of the Wildlife 1972 empowers the State Government to appoint Chief Wildlife Warden (b) Wildlife Wardens; and (c) officers and employees as may be necessary for of the 3 is correct: The Chief Wildlife Warden may, grant to any person a permit to enter or a sanctuary for all or any of the following investigation Qr study of wildlife and purposes ancillary photography; scientific tourism; transaction of lawful business with any person residing in the sanctuary

37. #117Practice set
    With reference to 'Forest Rights Act, 2006', consider the following statements: 1. The Act derecognized any ownership of forest land. 2. The act defined the criteria for the person to be categorized as a "forest dweller" in India. 3. Traditional nomadic or pastoralist communities are excluded from the purview of the act.How many of the statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (A) Only one
    Explanation

    Option a is the correct 1 is incorrect: The Forest Rights Act recognised rights of Forest land in forest Dwelling (FDST) and Other Traditional Forest It gives them the right to ownership to lapd tribals or dwellers subject to a maximum of 2 correct: The Forest Rights Act defines for a person to be categorized as a India, which includes Scheduled Tribes and forest dwellers who have been residing in: 3 is incorrect: The act applies to or pastoralist communities, and they are from its purview. Special provision has been in the act for the lands of traditionally nomadic communities which do not follow a culture agriculture and move to different places along

38. #118Practice set
    Which if the following statements regar,ding Deemed Forests is/ are correct? 1. It has been clearly defined in the Forest Conservation Act of 1980. 2. It comprises of total land in India. the correct option using the code given below
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (B) 2 only
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct 1 is incorrect: The term Deemed Forest has properly defined in any legislation in 2 is correct: Deemed Forests occupy only total forest land in India. Important Tips Supreme Court's Ruling on Definition of Forest: The Supreme Court (SC), in a 1996 judgement, had broadened the definition of forest to include not just land classified as forest under forest or revenue departments. It had then also asked states to form committees to identify forests, irrespective of the nature of land ownership or whether they are notified, recognised or classified in a time-bound manner. Deemed Forests are forests that are notified either with the forest department or revenue department. Then there are those areas that are like forests but are neither recorded, nor notified. The Supreme Court had ordered that the states identify and classify these as deemed forests. The SC said Deeme

39. #119Practice set
    Consider the following statements regarding Global Environment Facility (GEF): 1. It was created at the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change Conference held at Bonn (Germany) in 1999. 2. It acts as a financial mechanism for the Minamata Convention on Mercury and the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). Bractkebook:Which of the statements given is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (B) 2 only
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct 1 is incorrect: The Global Environment was established during the 1992 Rio Earth acts as a catalyst for action on the its strategic investments, the GEF works to tackle the planet's biggest environmental 2 is correct: GEF is a financial mechanism major international environmental Minamata Convention on Mercury, the on Persistent Organic Pollutants United Nations Convention on Biological the United Nations Convention to (UNCCD) and the United Nations on Climate Change (UNFCCC)

40. #120Practice set
    Consider the following statements with reference to the Global Alliance for Climate Smart Agriculture (GACSA): 1. Its membership is open to both businesses and international organizations. 2. The Facilitation Unit of GACSA is hosted by the Food and Agriculture Organization. 3. It was launched at the Earth Summit of 2002.How many of the statements given above are correct?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • CAll three
    • DNone
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Option b is the correct is an action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform Agriculture 1 is correct: GACSA is a voluntary coalition governments, international and regional civil society, farmers' organizations who subscribe to the vision and objectives of 2 is correct: The Facilitation Unit (FU) serves secretariat for the Alliance and helps Alliance action to deliver the Alliance's aspirational Facilitation Unit is hosted by Food and 3 is incorrect: The concept of (CSA) was originally developed by FAO presented at the Hague Conference on Security and Climate Change in 2010, through "Climate-Smart Agriculture: Policies, Practices for Food Security, Adaptation and was launched in 2014 at the UN Climate Summit

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