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Environmental Governance — UPSC Prelims Science & Environment previous year questions
20 free solved previous year questions on Environmental Governance, papers from 2006 to 2026, drawn from UPSC CSE Prelims, State PCS, covering statement-based, direct, match and assertion questions. Every answer key has been checked again against published sources and solved independently, and each explanation is written fresh.
Read all 20 questions with answers
- #1UPSC CSE 2026Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct ?1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.Select the answer using the code given below :
- A1, 2 and 3
- B1 and 3 only
- C2 only
- D3 only
Answer: (B) 1 and 3 onlyExplanation
NIRANTAR is a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. It works in three verticals.
Statement 1 is correct. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is led by the Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.
Statement 2 is wrong. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is led by ICFRE, Dehradun. The Central Zoo Authority does not lead it.
Statement 3 is correct. Capacity Development Support is led by the Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.
So 1 and 3 only.
Remember: ICFRE stands for Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education.Source: NIRANTAR portal, MoEFCC (nirantar.moef.gov.in)
- #2UPSC CSE 2025Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?
- AThe Asian Development Bank (ADB)
- BThe Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
- CThe New Development Bank (NDB)
- DThe International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
Answer: (A) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)Explanation
The Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific.
The hub helps raise finance for projects that protect and restore nature in the region.
AIIB, the New Development Bank and the IBRD are other multilateral lenders. They did not launch this hub.
Remember: The ADB is headquartered in Manila.Source: Asian Development Bank press release on the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific
- #3UPSC CSE 2025Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
- AThe European Union
- BThe World Bank
- CThe Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
- DThe Food and Agriculture Organization
Answer: (A) The European UnionExplanation
The European Union enacted the Nature Restoration Law. It came into force in August 2024.
The law sets binding targets to restore damaged ecosystems. It aims to cover at least 20 per cent of the EU's land and sea areas by 2030.
The World Bank, the OECD and the FAO do not make binding laws of this kind.
Remember: The law is part of the European Green Deal and the EU Biodiversity Strategy for 2030.Source: European Union Regulation (EU) 2024/1991 on nature restoration
- #4UPSC CSE 2024Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization:1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A2 only
- B3 only
- C1 and 2
- D2 and 3
Answer: (A) 2 onlyExplanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The World Toilet Organization is a non-profit group based in Singapore. It is not a UN agency.
Statement 2 is correct. It runs the World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day (19 November) and the World Toilet College.
Statement 3 is incorrect. It works through advocacy, training and awareness. It does not mainly give grants.
So only statement 2 is correct.
Remember: World Toilet Day is observed on 19 November, and the UN recognised it officially in 2013.Source: World Toilet Organization official website; UN-Water on World Toilet Day
- #5UPSC CSE 2024Consider the following statements:Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- ABoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
- BBoth Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
- CStatement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
- DStatement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrectExplanation
Statement-I is correct. The European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act in April 2024.
Statement-II is incorrect. The EU aims for climate neutrality by 2050, not 2040. The Act sets a target for the EU to produce at least 40% of its annual clean technology needs by 2030. It does not aim to make all of it in the EU.
So only Statement-I is correct.
Remember: the EU's 2050 neutrality goal is set in the European Climate Law.Source: European Union Net-Zero Industry Act (2024); European Climate Law (Regulation 2021/1119)
- #6UPSC CSE 2022Consider the following statements:1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The India Sanitation Coalition is a business-led platform under FICCI. It is not funded by the Government of India and the WHO.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an independent research institute registered as a society. It works with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs but is not an apex body of the Ministry.
So neither statement is correct.Source: India Sanitation Coalition (FICCI); National Institute of Urban Affairs, nuaindia.org
- #7UPSC CSE 2022Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
- ACentral Water Commission
- BCentral Ground Water Board
- CCentral Ground Water Authority
- DNational Water Development Agency
Answer: (C) Central Ground Water AuthorityExplanation
The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. It regulates and controls groundwater development.
The Central Water Commission is a technical body under the Ministry of Jal Shakti and was set up by executive order.
The Central Ground Water Board is a subordinate office of the Ministry, set up by executive decision.
The National Water Development Agency is a society registered under the Societies Registration Act.
Remember: CGWA was set up in 1997 on the Supreme Court's direction.Source: Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, s. 3(3); Ministry of Jal Shakti
- #8UPSC CSE 2022With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements: 1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government. 2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. 3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 and 2
- B2 only
- C1 and 3
- D3 only
Answer: (B) 2 onlyExplanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. Wild animals are not the sole property of the government. The Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 vests only certain categories, such as captured or hunted animals, in the government.
Statement 2 is correct. A protected animal enjoys protection inside and outside protected areas.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Under Section 11, killing or capture is allowed only when the Chief Wild Life Warden finds the animal dangerous and cannot be captured, tranquillised or translocated. Mere apprehension of danger is not enough.Source: Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, ss. 11 and 39
- #9UPSC CSE 2021Consider the following statements:Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World.Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- ABoth Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for statement 1
- BBoth statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1
- CStatement 1 is correct But Statement 2 is not correct
- DStatement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct
Answer: (D) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correctExplanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. Hyderabad was recognised as a 2020 Tree City of the World by the Arbor Day Foundation together with the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO). The UNCDF was not involved.
Statement 2 is correct. The recognition was given for the year for its commitment to grow and maintain urban forests.
So Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct.Source: Arbor Day Foundation and FAO, Tree Cities of the World programme
- #10UPSC CSE 2020Consider the following statements: [UPSC CSE Pre. 2020) 1. 36% of India's districts are classified as "overexploited" or "critical" by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA). 2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act. 3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C2 only
- D1 and 3 only
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 onlyExplanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The 36% figure does not match the Central Ground Water Board assessment of over-exploited and critical units. UPSC treated this statement as wrong.
Statement 2 is correct. The Central Ground Water Authority was constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Statement 3 is correct. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world and is the largest user of groundwater.
So 2 and 3 only are correct.Source: Central Ground Water Board, Dynamic Ground Water Resources Assessment; Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
- #11UPSC CSE 2020If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication?
- Aa license is required to cultivate that plant.
- BSuch a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances.
- CIt is a Genetically Modified crop plant.
- DSuch a plant is invasive and harmful to 20. the ecosystem.
Answer: (A) a license is required to cultivate that plant.Explanation
Schedule VI lists specified plants, such as the blue vanda and pitcher plant. Section 17A bans picking, uprooting, damaging or collecting them.
Section 17C allows cultivation only with a licence from the Chief Wild Life Warden or an authorised officer.
So a licence is required to cultivate such a plant.
Option (b) is wrong because cultivation is allowed under licence. Option (c) is wrong because the Schedule has no link with GM crops. Option (d) is wrong because it lists protected, not invasive, plants.Source: Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, ss. 17A-17F and Schedule VI
- #12UPSC CSE 2020According to India's National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels?1. Cassava2. Damaged wheat grains3. Groundnut seeds4. Horse grams5. Rotten potatoes6. Sugar beetSelect the correct answer using the code given below:
- A1, 2, 5 and 6 only
- B1, 3, 4 and 6 only
- C2, 3, 4 and 5 only
- D1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Answer: (A) 1, 2, 5 and 6 onlyExplanation
The National Policy on Biofuels (2018) allows ethanol from sugar-containing materials such as sugar beet and sweet sorghum.
It also allows starch-containing materials such as cassava, and damaged food grains like wheat and broken rice. It covers rotten potatoes and other items unfit for human consumption.
Groundnut seeds and horse gram are edible oil or food seeds and are not listed for ethanol.
So 1, 2, 5 and 6 are correct.Source: National Policy on Biofuels, 2018 (Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas)
- #13UPSC CSE 2019In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?
- AExtraction of rare earth elements
- BNatural gas extraction technologies
- CHydrogen fuel-based automobiles
- DWaste-to-energy technologies
Answer: (D) Waste-to-energy technologiesExplanation
Pyrolysis heats waste without oxygen and breaks it into gas, oil and char.
Plasma gasification uses a very hot plasma arc to turn waste into syngas.
Both are waste-to-energy technologies.
They are not used in rare earth extraction, natural gas extraction or hydrogen vehicles.
Remember: Syngas is a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen.Source: Solid Waste Management Rules 2016, MoEFCC; MNRE waste-to-energy programme
- #14UPSC CSE 2019As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
- AWaste generator has to segregate the waste into five categories.
- BThe Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
- CThe Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
- DIt is mandatory the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.
Answer: (C) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.Explanation
Option a is wrong. Waste generators must segregate waste into three streams: biodegradable, non-biodegradable and domestic hazardous.
Option b is wrong. The Rules apply beyond urban areas. They cover urban agglomerations, census towns, notified areas, airports, railways and other bodies.
Option c is right. The Rules give detailed criteria for the siting of landfills and processing facilities.
Option d is wrong. The Rules do not bar movement of waste across districts.
Remember: Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 replaced the 2000 Rules.Source: Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 (MoEFCC)
- #15UPSC CSE 2019Consider the following statements:The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to-1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought.2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B) 2 onlyExplanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Act does not contain any provision on public participation in environmental protection. Public hearing was brought in by the EIA Notification, 1994 and later versions.
Statement 2 is correct. Section 3 allows the Central Government to lay down standards for emission or discharge of pollutants.
So only statement 2 is correct.
Remember: The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was passed after the Bhopal gas tragedy.Source: Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, s. 3 and s. 6
- #16UPSC CSE 2019Consider the following statements:1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 3 only
- C3 only
- D1, 2 and 3
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 onlyExplanation
Statement 1 is incorrect. The 2017 amendment to the Indian Forest Act removed bamboo grown on non-forest land from the definition of 'tree'. It gave forest dwellers no right to fell bamboo in forest areas.
Statement 2 is correct. The Forest Rights Act, 2006 defines minor forest produce to include bamboo.
Statement 3 is correct. The Act gives forest dwellers the right to own, collect, use and sell minor forest produce.
So statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Remember: Forest Rights Act, 2006 also recognises community forest resource rights.Source: Forest Rights Act, 2006, s. 2(i) and s. 3(1)(c); Indian Forest (Amendment) Act, 2017
- #17UPSC CSE 2019Consider the following statements:1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A) 1 onlyExplanation
Statement 1 is correct. The CAF Act, 2016 sets up a National Authority and State Authorities to manage and use the funds.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Act does not make people's participation mandatory in compensatory afforestation.
So only statement 1 is correct.
Remember: Compensatory afforestation money is collected from users who divert forest land for non-forest use.Source: Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016
- #18UPSC CSE 2019In India, 'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
- AThe Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
- BThe Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
- CThe e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
- DThe Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011
Answer: (C) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011Explanation
Extended producer responsibility (EPR) makes the producer responsible for the collection and safe disposal of a product after its use.
In India, EPR was introduced as a key feature in the e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011.
The Bio-medical Waste Rules, 1998 and the Recycled Plastics Rules, 1999 did not carry EPR. The Food Safety Regulations, 2011 deal with food standards.
Remember: EPR was later extended to plastics, batteries and tyres.Source: e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 (MoEFCC)
- #19UPPCS 2019Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as the Reason (R).Assertion (A): Sustainable development is important for the well-being of human society.Reason (R): Sustainable development is a kind of development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.Codes:
- ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- BBoth (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- C(A) is true but (R) is false
- D(A) is false but (R) is true
Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)Explanation
Assertion (A) is true. Sustainable development protects resources and quality of life for people now and later.
Reason (R) is true. It is the standard definition from the Brundtland Report (1987).
The definition explains why sustainable development matters for human well-being.
So (R) is the correct explanation of (A).Source: Brundtland Commission, Our Common Future (1987)
- #20UPPCS 2006Consider the following statements:Assertion (A): Coastal Odisha is the most cyclone-prone area of India.Reason (R): There is a large amount of deforestation of mangroves in the Mahanadi delta area.Choose the correct answer in the given codes:
- ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
- BBoth (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- C(A) is false, but (R) is true.
- D(A) is true, but (R) is false.
Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).Explanation
Assertion A is accepted as true. Coastal Odisha faces frequent Bay of Bengal cyclones and is regarded as highly cyclone-prone.
Reason R is also true. Mangrove clearing in the Mahanadi delta has reduced the natural shield against storm surges.
But the cause of cyclones is the warm sea and the shape of the Bay of Bengal coast. Mangrove loss raises damage, not the occurrence of cyclones. So R does not explain A.
Remember: Mangroves act as bio-shields against storm surges.Source: NDMA cyclone hazard profile; IMD
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