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General & Miscellaneous — UPSC Prelims Economy previous year questions — page 3
112 solved previous year questions on General & Miscellaneous, papers from 1990 to 2023, drawn from State PCS, UPSC CDS, UPSC CSE Prelims. Each carries the printed answer key and the explanation from the source compilation.
- #81Practice setWith reference to the Public debt instruments, consider the following statements: 1. Government Securities (G-Secs) are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments. 2. Treasury bills are short-term debt instruments that mature within a year.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2Explanation
Option c is the correct l is correct. A Government Security (G-Sec) tradeable instrument issued by the Central the State Governments. G-Secs carry practically of default and, hence, are called risk-free 2 is correct. Treasury hills are instruments that mature within a year. They can only at maturity. They are sold at a discount if maturity
- #82Practice setThe term sometimes mentioned in the news, to
- AAgreement between two parties to offset claims against each other to determine a single net payment
- BAgreement between creditor and debtor to revive stalled projects by giving equity participation to creditor in such projects
- CAgreement between creditor and debtor to restructure the debt of companies facing financial difficulties
- DAgreement between two parties where the borrower is required to make only interest payments during the life of the loan
Answer: (A) Agreement between two parties to offset claims against each other to determine a single net paymentExplanation
Option a is the correct netting is when two parties combine all their one master swap, creating one net payment, instead between the parties. A bilateral netting two counterparties in a financial contract to against each other to determine a single net due from one counterparty to other
- #83Practice setConsider the following statements: I. Unlike PM CARES Fund, National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF) was established under the Disaster Management Act, 2005. 2. Both PM CARES Fund and NDRF are subject to audit by the Comptroller and Auditor General. 3. PM CARES Fund can receive Voluntary contributions whereas NDRF is not open for individual contributions.How many of the statements given above are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Answer: (A) Only oneExplanation
Option a is the correct l is Prime Minister's Citizen Relief in Emergency Situations (PM CARES) Fund registered as a Public Charitable Trust. The trust deed CARES Fund has been registered under the Act, 1908 while National Disaster Response Fund is Section 46 of the Disaster Management Act, 2005 as a fund managed by the Central Government the expenses for emergency response, relief due to any threatening disaster situation 2 is incorrect. The audit of the PM collected will be done by a private auditor but and Auditor General of India audit the NDRF. In NDRF, the guidelines issued by the as per DM Act specifically provide for audit NDRF by 3 is incorrect. Any individual or institution to PM cares. It does not get any budgetary no government money is credited in the PM Cares is financed through the levy of a cess on chargeable to excise and customs duty, and through the Finance Bill. In Ju
- #84Practice setWith regard to Positive Pay Mechanism, consider the following statements: 1. It involves a process of reconfirming key details of large-value cheques. 2. It is developed by the Union Ministry of Finance.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A) 1 onlyExplanation
Option a is the correct l is correct. The concept of Positive Pay process of reconfirming key details of large value 2 is incorrect. The Positive Pay is being developed by National Payments India (NPCI)
- #85Practice setConsider the following pairs: 1. Fiat money Backed by physical commodity like gold 2. Legal tender Mandatory to accept it as mode of settlement 3. Fiduciary money Backed by trust between payer and payeeHow many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Answer: (B) Only twoExplanation
Option bis the correct l is incorrect. Fiat money or fiat currency is any the government declares as legal tender. It is issued order of the government and is not backed by a such as gold or silver. In other words, fiat no intrinsic value. Market forces determine the value money. There is no obligation on any person to money as a medium of exchange. No legal action initiated in this case. Governments introduced this money as an alternative to representative and (gold 2 is correct. Legal tender is the money that is the law of the land, as valid for payment of debt. must be accepted for discharge of debt. It is accept this type of money for the settlement of 3 is correct. Fiduciary money refers to money by trust between the payer and payee. Example: fiduciary money as these are accepted as a means on the basis of trust but not on the basis of of the government. Important Tips The governmen
- #86Practice setWhich one of the following statements best describe 'investment'?
- AIt is defined as the accumulation of money for future use
- BIt is a mechanism used for generating future income without any risk
- CIt is the act of leveraging money for a potential future gain and it entails some risk
- DIt is anattempt to capitalize on market inefficiencies for short-term profit
Answer: (C) It is the act of leveraging money for a potential future gain and it entails some riskExplanation
Option c is the correct a is incorrect. The accumulation of money use is not investment. Instead it is actually b is incorrect. Saving does not carry risk entails some c is correct. An investment is an asset or is purchased with the hope that it will generate appreciate in value at some point in the future. It is the leveraging money for a potential future gain and it d is incorrect. The attempt to capitalize inefficiencies for short-term profit is not it is speculation
- #87Practice setConsider the following statements with reference to the bilateral netting: 1. It enables two counterparties with several claims against each other to determine a single net payment obligation. 2. At present, Indian laws do not permit bilateral netting between two counterparties.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A) 1 onlyExplanation
Option a is the correct 1 is correct. A bilateral netting agreement counterparties in a financial contract to offset each other to determine a single net due from one counterparty to the other. In contracts constitute of total financial multilateral contracts constitute 2 is incorrect. Earlier, Indian financial did not permit bilateral netting, however, they did netting. However, the Bilateral Netting Financial Contracts Bill, 2020, recently passed Parliament, provides an unambiguous legal bilateral netting and would result in huge savings for besides reducing the overall risk
- #88Practice setWith reference to money nrnrkets, consider the following statements:l. Maturity period of Call money is one day only. 2. Treasury bill is the example of long-term borrowing. 3. Call rate is the interest paid on the call money loans.How many of the statements given above are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Answer: (A) Only oneExplanation
Option a is the correct l is money is short term finance repayable on demand, maturity period of one day to fifteen days, used for interbank 2 is incorrect. A Treasury bill is basically of short-term borrowing by the Government maturing in less than one year. Treasury bills are the form of a promissory note. They are highly liquid assured yield and negligible risk of 3 is interest rate paid on call money loans is known as rate. It is a highly volatile rate that varies from day today and sometimes even from hour-to hour
- #89Practice setConsider the following statements regarding financial markets in India: 1. Short term financial market is known as Capital Market, while the long-term financial market is known as Money Market. 2. Short term financial market fulfils requirements of funds for a period maximumupto 90 days.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2Explanation
Option dis the correct markets in every economy are having two today, one catering to the requirements of short term funds and the other to the requirements of l is incorrect. The short-term financial market as the money market, while the long-term is known as the capital is incorrect. The short-term financial the money market fulfils the requirements of funds period upto 364 days while long-term financial market capital market does the same for the period above
- #90Practice setWith reference to Call money Market, consider the following statements: 1. It is non-interest-earning financial loan with a pre-fixed maturity date. 2. It is a short-term loan made by a financial institution to another financial institution.Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- Cboth 1 and 2
- Dneither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B) 2 onlyExplanation
Option b is the correct l is incorrect. Call money, also known at call," is a short-term financial loan that is and in full, when the lender demands a term loan, which has a set maturity and call money does not have to follow a nor does the lender have to provide any of 2 is correct. Call money is a short-term, interest paying loan from one to 14 days made by a to another financial institution. Due to nature of the loan, it does not feature and interest payments, which longer-term The interest charged on a call loan between is referred to as the call loan rate
- #91Practice setWith reference to Call money Market, consider the following statements: 1. Call money is non-interest-earning financial loan with a set maturity date. 2. Call money is a short-term loan from one to 14 days made by a financial institution to another financial institution. 3. Call money is used by brokerage firms for short-term funding needs.How many of the above given statements are correct?
- AOnly One
- BOnly Two
- CAll Three
- DNone
Answer: (B) Only TwoExplanation
Option b is the correct l is incorrect. Call money, also known at call;' is a short-term financial loan that is and in full, when the lender demands a term loan, which has a set maturity and call money does not have to follow a fixed does the lender have to provide any advanced notice 2 is correct. Call money is a short-term, interest paying loan from one to 14 days made by a to another financial institution. Due to nature of the loan, it does not feature and interest payments, which longer-term The interest charged on a call loan between is referred to as the call loan 3 is correct. Call money is typically used firms for short-term funding needs. Dealing money allows banks the opportunity to earn interest Poverty, Health. and
- #92Practice setConsider the following statements: I. As per the 2011 census, of the country's population has migrated internally. 2. Inter-state migration accounts for about of the total internal migration. 3. Rural to rural migration is the most dominant form of migration.How many of the statements given above are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Answer: (B) Only twoExplanation
Option b is the correct 1 is correct. As per the 2011 census, the of internal migrants in India is 45.36 crore of the country's population. This includes as well as migrants within each state. Statement 2 is incorrect. It is estimated that current internal migration are about Only about of all internal migrants) move from to another. An estimated 400 million Indians the district they live in. About 140 million one district to another but within the same state. migration accounts for just about of 3 is correct. The most dominant form is from rural-to-rural areas. It accounts for of the total migration. Rural to urban areas migration accounts for only about of the total migration (600 million). Urban to urban areas migration accounts for only about of the total migration (600 million). Total urban migration (rural to urban as well as urban to urban) accounts for of the total migration
- #93Practice setConsider the following differences between Physical Capital and Human Capital 1. Physical Capital is tangible while Human Capital is intangible. 2. Physical capital is easily sold in the market like any other commodity, while human capital is not sold iu Lhe market. 3. Physical Capital always depreciates with time while Human Capital always appreciates with time. 4. Physical and Human capital are completely mobile between countries.How many of the statements given above are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- COnly three
- DAll four
Answer: (B) Only twoExplanation
Option b is the correct l is correct: Physical capital is tangible. is intangible; it is endogenously built in the body of its 2 is correct: Physical Capital can be easily sold market like any other commodity. While Human not sold in the market; only the services of the are 3 is incorrect: Continous use of machines its depreciation but his/her health or physical with ageing. Hence it cannot be said that always appreciates with 4 is incorrect: Physical capital is between countries except for some artificial Human capital is not perfectly mobile as movement is restricted by nationality
- #94Practice setWith reference to Gross Enrolment ratio (GER), consider the following: 1. GER is the number of student enrolled in school at particular grade as a proportion of the corresponding eligible students in the particular age group in a given year. 2. India has a GER of about 100 percent at primary level. 3. GER can exceed 100 percent.How many of the statements given above are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Answer: (C) All threeExplanation
Option c is the correct Enrolment Ratio (GER) is the student enrolment proportion of the corresponding eligible age group in year. In 2018-19, the GER in primary education to GER can exceed due to the inclusion and under-aged students because of early or
- #95Practice setConsider the following statements about Disability Adjusted Life Years (DALY): 1. It is the potential life lost due to premature death and years of productivity lost due to disability. 2. One DALY is equivalent to loss of 1 month of full health.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (A) 1 onlyExplanation
Option a is the correct expresses premature mortality and disability due to cause. It is made up of Years of Life Lost Years of Life lived with Disability (YLD). Years of is the time people lose because they die before life expectancy has expired. YLD measures years lived with any short or long-term condition that person from living in full DALY is equivalent to loss of 1 year of full health
- #96Practice setConsider the following statements with reference to the National Family Health Survey-5: 1. Total fertility rate (TFR) has fallen below the replacement level. 2. Overall Contraceptive Prevalence Rate (CPR) has decreased substantially to about at the all-India level. 3. All the States/UTs achieved the replacement level of fertility. 4. Sex ratio has risen as compared to National Family Health Survey-4.How many of the above given statements are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- COnly three
- DAll four
Answer: (B) Only twoExplanation
Option b is the correct l is correct. National Family Health shows that Total Fertility Rate (TFR), an of children per women, has further come down in 2019-21 from 2.2 fo 2015-16. The replacement 2.1. Thus, the TFR at present as per NFHS-5 is below 2 is incorrect. Overall Contraceptive (CPR) has increased substantially from to all-India 3 is incorrect. In all the States/UTs Rajasthan, Jharkbaml, Manipur, Meghalaya, and Uttar Pradesh the replacement level has been 4 is correct. Sex ratio, number of females per in the total population has risen from 991 females (NFHS-4) to 1020 in 2019-21 (NFHS-5)
- #97Practice setWhich of the following initiative is launched to provide internship opportunities to fresh graduates in Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) and Smart Cities?
- ATULIP
- BChampion
- CSaksham
- DYukti 2.0
Answer: (A) TULIPExplanation
Option a is the correct Urban Leaming Internship Program (TULIP) aims internship opportunities to fresh graduates in Bodies (ULBs) and Smart Cities across the country. program is being implemented through a Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs AICTE
- #98Practice setIn the context of mixed economy, consider the following statements: 1. It is based on the principle of 'laissez faire'. 2. In a mixed economy, both the public seclor enlerprises privale seclor enterprises co-exist.Which of the statements given above is/are correct? mll
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B) 2 onlyExplanation
Option b is the correct l is incorrect: Laissez-faire is an which envisages the free-market condition the government 2 is correct: Indian economy is considered economy as it has both public and private in India
- #99Practice setConsider the following statements: 1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India. 2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board. 3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.How many of the statements given above are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone l- 1, With respect to public asset management in India
Answer: (A) Only oneExplanation
Option a is the 1 is incorred. According to Section Patents Ad 1970, u or a plant, or a to a seed or plant cannot be 2 is incorrect. Intellectual Property was constituted in 2003 to hear appeals against of the Registrar under the Trade Marks Act, the Geographical Indications of Goods Protection) Act, 1999. 3 is correct. The Patents Act - 1970 does plants and animals, including seeds, varieties, and essentially biological processes for propagation of plants and animals from being patented
- #100Practice setMatch the following options related to Dedicated freight corridor with the states through which it passes. (or.ridor 1. Eastern corridor A. Telangana 2. Western corridor B. Gujarat 3. North south C. Chhattisgarh corridor 4. East west corridor D. BiharSelect the correct answer using the code given below
- A1- 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
- B1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
- C3,A, 4,,C
- D1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
Answer: (C) 3,A, 4,,CExplanation
Option c is the correct Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC): to Dankuni West Bengal. The EDFC route Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand Dedicated Freight Corridor (WDFC): Dadri, Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Mumbai. The WDFC Rajasthan, Gujarat, Maharashtra Uttar Dedicated Freight Corridor connects Tamil Nadu. The 975 km long North-South will link Vijayawada-Nagpur-Itarsi which Dedicated Freight Corridor connects with Maharashtra. The East-West corridor 1,673 km long route linking Chhattisgarh
- #101Practice setConsider the following statements about license raj: 1. Licenses were required for starting new companies and for producing new products but not for expanding production capacities of existing firms. 2. Businesses had to have government approval for laying off workers and for shutting down.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B) 2 onlyExplanation
Option b is the correct l is incorrect: Licenses were required for companies, for producing new products or 2 is correct: Businesses had to have tor laying off workers and for shutting down
- #102Practice setWith reference to the Patents Act 1970 in India, consider the following statements 1. The discovery of any new property or new use for a known substance is eligible for Patent under the Act. 2. The Act ensures that government can never allow a third party to produce a patented product or process without the consent of the patent owner.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2Explanation
Option d is the correct patent is an exclusive set of rights granted for an provides a new way of doing something or offers a solution to a problem. It is of two types: and process l is incorrect: Section 3 of Indian Patents deals with what does not qualify as an the Act. Section in particular excludes "the of a new form of a known substance which result in the enhancement of the known efficacy of or the mere discovery of any new property or for a known 2 is incorrect: There is a provision for in the Patents act 1970. It is an by the Government to someone else i.e., a to produce a patented product without the consent patent owner. Thus, the patent owner cannot take of exclusive rights granted by patent. Important Tips Indian patents are governed by the Indian Patent Act of 1970. Under the act, patents are granted if the invention fulfils the following criteria: It should be novel It shou
- #103Practice setWith reference to 'Inland waterways' in India, which one of the following statements is incorrect?
- AThe matters relating to shipping and navigation on inl and waterways fall under the purview of both the Centre and the States
- BAn inl and waterway in India can be declared a national waterway only through an Act of the Parliament
- CThe Inl and Vessels Act, 2021 provides that separate rules must be framed by each state for regulation of inl and waterways
- DInl and Waterways Authority of India is a statutory body set up for the regulation of shipping and navigation in country
Answer: (C) The Inl and Vessels Act, 2021 provides that separate rules must be framed by each state for regulation of inl and waterwaysExplanation
Option c is the correct answer. India has various Inland Water Transport (IWT) options rivers, canals, backwaters, creeks, and tidal has over 5,000 km of navigable inland a is correct: According to item 32 of matters relating to shipping and navigation on fall under the purview of both the Centre and bis correct: Unlike in the case of declaring national highways, an inland waterway can be declared waterway only through an Act of the c is incorrect: The Inland Vessels act, 2021 the safety, security and registration of inland provides for a unified law for the entire country, separate rules framed by the States and bring the application of the law. It will also help in water pollution caused by these inland vessels as directs the Central Government to designate a list substances, etc.as Statement d is correct: Inland Waterways Authority is a statutory body set up in 1986 through the Author
- #104Practice setWhich of the following are the correct provrnwns of Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2021? 1. It empowers the National Mineral Exploration Trust for the exploration and acquisition of mines outside India. 2. It provides that no mine can be reserved for particular end-use. 3. It provides that there will not be any involvement of state governments in auctioning of mines.Choose the correct answer using the code given below
- A1 and 3 only
- B2 only
- C3 only
- D1 and 2 only HO
Answer: (B) 2 onlyExplanation
Option bis the correct l is incorrect: Under Mines and and Regulation) Amendment Act 2015, National Mineral Exploration Trust (NMET) for regional and detailed mineral the country (not outside the country and no to acquisition of mines by NMET is there in the amended act of 2021 does not make any such changes role and function of NMET which empowers it for and acquisition of mines outside 2 is correct: The MMDR Act 2015 central government to reserve any mine (other lignite, and atomic minerals) to be leased through for a particular end-use (such as iron ore mine steel plant). Such mines are known as captive mines. Amendment Act 2021 provides that no mine reserved for particular 3 is incorrect: The MMDR Amendment Act the central government to specify a time period of the auction process of mines in the state government. If the state government is complete the auction process within this pe
- #105Practice setto 'Information technology Agreement' consider the following statement: 1. It is an agreement under UNCTAD Framework. 2. It requires each participant to eliminate and bind customs at zero for all products specified in the agreement. 3. ITA covers a large number of high technology products.How many of the statements given above are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Answer: (B) Only twoExplanation
Option b is the correct l is incorrect: Information (ITA) is an agreement under the overall ITA was signed in 1996 (one year after into effect from 1st Jan 2 is correct: The ITA requires each country) to eliminate and bind customs zero for all products specified in the Agreement. ITA concessions are included in the schedules of concessions, the tariff elimination on a most-favoured nation (MFN) basis. that even countries that have not joined the ITA from the trade opportunities generated by ITA "Bind" means if a country has eliminated duty to zero then the member country is bound and in case if it increases then it will have to face 3 is correct: The ITA covers a large high technology products, including equipment, manufacturing and testing scientific instruments, as well as most of the accessories of these products. Important Tips The Information Technology Agreement (ITA) seeks to acce
- #106Practice setWith reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements: 1. The First Summit of BRICS wns held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009. 2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B) 2 onlyExplanation
Option b is the correct l is incorrect. The first summit of BRICS Yekaterinburg, Russia in 2009. BRICS is an of states comprising the Federative Republic of Russian Federation, the Republic of India, the of China and the Republic of South 2 is correct. South Africa was admitted as nation on 24/12/2010, after being invited by other BRIC nations. It was the last to join PMENT
- #107Practice setConsider the following statements: 1. Cotton plant requires uniformly high temperature during sprouting stage and rainfall at the time of boll opening. 2. Ratooning process is employed to extract jute fibre from its stem. 3. Jute grows well in red soil and laterite soils.How many of the statements given above are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Answer: (D) NoneExplanation
Option d is the correct l is incorrect - Cotton plant requires bright sunshine, high temperature (21 to light rainfall cm) and 210 frost-free days for its growth. High rainfall in beginninghelps in sprouting of seeds. flowering and ripening stage, cotton requires sunny weather.Moist weather and rainfall at the time of boll opening may damage the fibre. It also makes cotton to pests and 2 is incorrect - Retting is the process of from stem of the plants. The various ways of Retting retting (hammering), chemical retting applying chemicals), steam/vapor/dew retting, and microbial retting. is employed jute fibre from its 3 is incorrect - Jute grows well on soils in the flood plains where soils are year. The grey alluvial soil of good depth, from annual floods, is the best for jute. Plenty water is required for growth and processing crop. High temperature is required during the time Important
- #108Practice setWith reference to the Essential Commodities Act, consider the following statements: 1. Essential commodities have been defined under the act. 2. Currently, petroleum products are not included under the list of essential commodities. 3. Agri-food stuffs can only be regulated under extraordinary circumstances.How many of the statements given above are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone k
Answer: (A) Only oneExplanation
Option a is the correct l is incorrect: The Essential commodities empowers the central government to control supply, distribution, trade, and certain commodities. The Act empowers the to designate certain commodities (such items, fertilizers, and petroleum products) as is no specific definition of essential commodities Essential commodities Act, 1955. Section of states that an "essential commodity" means a in the "Schedule" of this 2 is incorrect: Currently, petroleum included under list of essential commodities. the "Schedule" contains 9 commodities drugs; fertilizers, whether inorganic, organic or including edible oils; hank yarn made cotton; petroleum and petroleum products; raw jute textiles; seeds of food-crops and seeds of fruits seeds of cattle fodder, jute seed, cotton seed; and hand 3 is correct: Under the amended Act, 1955, agri-food stuffs can only under extraordinary circumst
- #109Practice setWith.reference to Bringing Green Revolution to Eastern India (BGREI) consider the following statements: 1. It aims to increase production of rice and wheat by adopting latest technologies. 2. It aims to promote post-harvest technology and provide marketing support. 3. It is exclusively implemented in the states of North East India.How many of the statements given above are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Answer: (B) Only twoExplanation
Option bis the correct 1 is correct: It aims to increase production of rice and wheat by adopting latest 2 is correct: It will promote and marketing support along with harvesting structures and efficient utilization of 3 is incorrect: It is being implemented in comprising seven (7) States namely; Assam, Jharkhand, Odisha, Eastern Uttar and West Bengal
- #110Practice setWith reference to Green Revolution, consider the following statements: 1. It accelerated the extension of pulses and oilseed cultivation to non-traditional areas in India. 2. It led to deforestation in some parts of India.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A1 only
- B2 only
- CBoth 1 and 2
- DNeither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B) 2 onlyExplanation
Option b is the correct 1 is incorrect: Green Revolution helped of rke and wheal cultivation to Rice cultivation was spread over semi-arid areas Haryana and western part of Uttar Pradesh. cultivation was spread to Rajasthan, Madhya 2 is correct: Green revolution has left a on various ecological aspects in different the country. Some of the ecological problems created revolution are soil salinity and alkalinity, water soil erosion and degradation, of under groundwater, environmental health hazards. It has increased the deforestation in more cultivable land is needed to increase Today Punjab and Haryana are almost devoid for this particular reason
- #111Practice setWhich of the following is/are the correct reason for the failure of the Tenancy reforms in India? 1. High rate ofland rents were prescribed by the legislation. 2. Ineffective implementation of laws by states. 3. Land is a Concurrent list subject. 4. A total ban on sub-letting land would not be socially desirable.Select the correct answer from the code given below
- A1 and 2 only
- B2 and 4 only
- C1, 2 and 3 only
- D1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (B) 2 and 4 onlyExplanation
Option bis the correct component of land reform laws that was the the tenancy abolition and regulation acts. They to outlaw tenancy altogether or to regulate rents some security to the I is incorrect: During the rents were fixed either by the custom or were of the market forces of demand and supply. The rent were very high valuing one half of the produce Consequently, the First and the Second five-year that rents should be lowered and should one fourth or one fifth of the gross produce. have passed tenancy regulation acts regulating this was not a reason for 2 is correct: In most of the states, laws were never implemented very in West Bengal and Kerala, there was a of the agrarian structure that gave land the 3 is incorrect: Item 18 of the State List under Schedule covers the Land, that is to say, rights in land, land tenures including the relation oflandlord and the collection of rents;
- #112Practice setWith reference to the land reforms in India, consider the following statements: 1. Bhoodan movement aimed at redistribution of the lands willingly given up by the large landowners among the landless. 2. The Gramdan led to the donation of the entire village to the society for carrying out cooperative farming. 3. The Land Satyagraha in Chhattisgarh ensured a scientific survey of land to weed out the false land records.How many of the statements given above are correct?
- AOnly one
- BOnly two
- CAll three
- DNone
Answer: (C) All threeExplanation
Option c is the correct l is correct: Acharya Vinoba Bhave for providing land to the landless and create a new social order based on cooperative movement was initiated for the landowners give up some acres of their land to landless Movement had two components (i) the land gifts, and (ii) redistributing that land among 2 is correct: The Grnmdan (Donation of Village) led to the donation of the entire village society for carrying out cooperative farming. In gramdan, all the land was to be collectively managed by the Gram Sabha. The labourers will their earnings to the village community, which will it according to needs. Thus, gramdan acts as unit for putting the principles in the practice, according to his ability, to each according to his 3 is correct: The Land Satyagraha was launched in about 700 villages of Raipur district of land Satyagraha strengthened Land Reforms in India the support