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Industry & Infrastructure — UPSC Prelims Economy previous year questions

20 free solved previous year questions on Industry & Infrastructure, papers from 1999 to 2026, drawn from UPSC CSE Prelims, State PCS, covering statement-based, direct, match and assertion questions. Every answer key has been checked again against published sources and solved independently, and each explanation is written fresh.

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  1. #1UPSC CSE 2026
    In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India’s maritime trade and logistics policy ?1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala’s profile as a maritime heritage destination.3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.Select the answer using the code given below :
    • A1 only
    • B1 and 2
    • C2 and 3
    • D3 only
    Answer: (D) 3 only
    Explanation

    Statement 1 is wrong. Vizhinjam is not only a domestic cargo hub. It is meant to handle large international container ships with foreign partners.
    Statement 2 is wrong. Its main aim is trans-shipment of containers, not cruise tourism.
    Statement 3 is correct. Vizhinjam has a natural deep draft and sits close to the main east-west shipping lane. It can cut India's reliance on foreign trans-shipment ports such as Colombo and keep more port revenue in India.
    So only 3.
    Remember: Vizhinjam in Kerala is India's first deep-water container trans-shipment port and was built in a PPP model.

    Source: Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Vizhinjam port project notes; Maritime India Vision 2030

  2. #2UPSC CSE 2026
    Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India :I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland water shipping, along with improved global port rankings.III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct ?1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.Select the answer using the code given below :
    • A1 only
    • B1 and 2
    • C2 and 3
    • D3 only
    Answer: (B) 1 and 2
    Explanation

    Statement I is a fact. Sagarmala aims at port-led development using low-cost, sustainable coastal infrastructure.
    Statement II is a fact. Coastal and inland water shipping have grown, and Indian ports have improved their global ranks.
    Statement III is a fact. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to make India a maritime innovation hub, in line with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047.
    Relation 1 is correct. The results in II show that the strategy in I works.
    Relation 2 is correct. III builds on I by adding innovation.
    Relation 3 is wrong. I does not contradict III; III extends I.
    Remember: Sagarmala was launched in 2015 under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.

    Source: Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Sagarmala Programme documents

  3. #3UPSC CSE 2026
    Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched ?
    • ACG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat
    • BTata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam
    • CHCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh
    • DSicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha
    Answer: (C) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh
    Explanation

    The question asks for the pair that is not correctly matched.
    CG Power with Renesas and STARS Microelectronics has its plant in Gujarat. This pair is correct.
    Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test is in Assam. This pair is correct.
    SicSem is in Odisha. This pair is correct.
    The HCL-Foxconn joint venture plant is near Jewar in Uttar Pradesh, not in Madhya Pradesh. So this pair is not correct.
    Remember: these plants are approved under the India Semiconductor Mission.

    Source: Ministry of Electronics and IT, India Semiconductor Mission; PIB

  4. #4UPSC CSE 2025
    Consider the following statements:I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.Which of the statements given above are correct?
    • AI and II only
    • BII and III only
    • CI and III only
    • DI, II and III
    Answer: (C) I and III only
    Explanation

    Statement I is correct. India joined the Minerals Security Partnership in 2023.
    Statement II is incorrect. India is not rich in all the 30 critical minerals it has listed. It imports several of them, such as lithium and cobalt.
    Statement III is correct. The 2023 Amendment lets the Centre alone auction mining leases and composite licences for certain critical minerals.
    So only I and III are correct.
    Remember: The 2023 Amendment moved auctions of notified critical minerals to the Central Government.

    Source: Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023; Ministry of Mines on critical minerals

  5. #5UPSC CSE 2025
    Consider the following activities:I. Production of crude oilII. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleumIII. Marketing and sale of petroleum productsIV. Production of natural gasHow many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll the four
    Answer: (B) Only two
    Explanation

    Only two of the four activities are regulated by the PNGRB.
    The PNGRB Act, 2006 covers refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas. It excludes the production of crude oil and natural gas.
    Activity I, production of crude oil, is not regulated.
    Activity II, refining, storage and distribution, is regulated.
    Activity III, marketing and sale, is regulated.
    Activity IV, production of natural gas, is not regulated.
    Remember: Upstream production is outside the PNGRB. The DGH oversees it.

    Source: Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006

  6. #6UPSC CSE 2024
    Consider the following airports:1. Donyi Polo Airport2. Kushinagar International Airport3. Vijayawada International AirportIn the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B2 and 3 only
    • C1 and 3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3
    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
    Explanation

    A greenfield airport is built on new land, not by expanding an old one.
    Donyi Polo Airport at Hollongi in Arunachal Pradesh is a greenfield project. Kushinagar International Airport in Uttar Pradesh is also greenfield.
    Vijayawada airport at Gannavaram is an old airport. It was upgraded and given a new terminal, so it is a brownfield case.
    So only 1 and 2 are correct. Every option with 3 is wrong.
    Remember: greenfield means new site; brownfield means expansion of an existing airport.

    Source: Ministry of Civil Aviation / Airports Authority of India project descriptions

  7. #7UPSC CSE 2024
    Consider the following:1. Battery storage2. Biomass generators3. Fuel cells4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic unitsHow many of the above are considered "Distributed Energy Resources"?
    • AOnly one
    • BOnly two
    • COnly three
    • DAll four
    Answer: (D) All four
    Explanation

    Distributed Energy Resources (DERs) are small units that generate or store power near the point of use. They connect to the local grid, not only to big plants.
    Battery storage, biomass generators, fuel cells and rooftop solar units all fit this meaning.
    So all four are DERs.
    Remember: DERs make the grid more flexible and can feed power back to it.

    Source: Ministry of Power / International Energy Agency descriptions of Distributed Energy Resources

  8. #8UPSC CSE 2022
    With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market places.2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    • A1 only
    • B2 only
    • CBoth 1 and 2
    • DNeither 1 nor 2
    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
    Explanation

    Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the FDI policy, a marketplace e-commerce entity cannot own inventory or sell its own goods.
    Statement 2 is incorrect as framed. The policy bars marketplace firms from holding equity in sellers on their platform.
    So the sellers cannot be owned to any degree, and the statement of 'limited degree' does not match.
    This answer follows the book key; the framing of statement 2 is debated.

    Source: DPIIT, Press Note 2 (2018) on FDI in e-commerce

  9. #9UPSC CSE 2019
    Consider the following statements:1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal product.Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    • A1 only
    • B2 and 3 only
    • C3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3
    Answer: (A) 1 only
    Explanation

    Statement 1 is correct. Coking coal mines were nationalised in 1971-72 and non-coking coal mines in 1973, under Indira Gandhi.
    Statement 2 is incorrect. After the Supreme Court cancelled earlier allocations in 2014, coal blocks are allotted by competitive auction and bidding. Lottery is not used.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. India still imports coal, mainly coking coal for steel and some thermal coal. It is not self-sufficient.
    Remember: Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015 introduced auctions of coal blocks.

    Source: Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act 1973; Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act 2015; Ministry of Coal

  10. #10UPSC CSE 2016
    Which one of the following is a purpose of 'UDAY', a scheme of the Government?
    • AProviding technical and financial assistance to start-up entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy
    • BProviding electricity to every household in the country by 2018
    • CReplacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of time
    • DProviding for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies
    Answer: (D) Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies
    Explanation

    UDAY stands for Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana. It was launched in November 2015.
    It aimed at the financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies (DISCOMs).
    States took over 75% of DISCOM debt.
    DISCOMs had to cut losses and improve efficiency.
    Household electrification was the aim of Saubhagya and DDUGJY.
    UDAY did not deal with start-ups or replacing coal plants.

    Source: Ministry of Power UDAY

  11. #11UPSC CSE 2016
    What is/are the purpose/purposes of 'District Mineral Foundations' in India?1. Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts.2. Protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations.3. Authorizing State Governments to issue licenses for mineral exploration.Select the correct answer using the code given below.
    • A1 and 2 only
    • B2 only
    • C1 and 3 only
    • D1, 2 and 3
    Answer: (B) 2 only
    Explanation

    Statement 1 is incorrect. A District Mineral Foundation does not promote exploration. Exploration is handled under separate provisions and agencies.
    Statement 2 is correct. The Foundation is a trust set up by the State Government in mining-affected districts. It works for the benefit of persons and areas affected by mining.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. Licensing power already lies with State Governments under the MMDR Act. The Foundation gives no such authority.
    Remember: DMFs were created by the MMDR Amendment Act, 2015 (Section 9B).

    Source: Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act 1957, s. 9B (as amended 2015)

  12. #12UPSC CSE 2010
    Which one of the following is not a feature of Limited Liability Partnership firm?
    • APartners should be less than 20
    • BPartnership and management need not be separate
    • CInternal governance may be decided by mutual agreement among partners
    • DIt is corporate body with perpetual succession
    Answer: (A) Partners should be less than 20
    Explanation

    A Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) mixes features of a company and a partnership.
    The LLP Act, 2008 sets no upper limit on the number of partners. At least two partners are needed. So option (a) is not a feature.
    Partners themselves can manage the LLP. So option (b) is a feature.
    The LLP agreement among partners decides internal governance. So option (c) is a feature.
    An LLP is a body corporate with perpetual succession. So option (d) is a feature.
    Remember: In an LLP, a partner's liability is limited to the agreed contribution.

    Source: Limited Liability Partnership Act 2008, ss. 3, 6, 23

  13. #13UPSC CSE 2003
    Consider the following statements:1. Molasses is a by-product of the sugar production process.2. Bagasse obtained from sugar mills is used as a fuel in the boilers to generate steam in sugar factories.3. Sugar can only be produced from sugarcane as the raw material.Which of these statements is/are correct?
    • A1 and 2
    • B2 and 3
    • C1 and 3
    • D1, 2 and 3
    Answer: (A) 1 and 2
    Explanation

    Statement 1 is correct. Molasses is the thick syrup left after sugar crystals are removed.
    Statement 2 is correct. Mills burn bagasse, the cane fibre, to make steam and power.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. Sugar is also made from sugar beet.
    Remember: Molasses is used to make ethanol.

    Source: NCERT Class XII, Geography (India: People and Economy); Department of Food and Public Distribution

  14. #14UPSC CSE 1999
    Consider the following statements:Small-scale industries are, in most cases, not as efficient and competitive as the large scale ones. Yet the Government provides preferential treatment and reservations in a range of products to the small firms because small-scale industries:1. provide higher employment on a per unit capital deployment basis.2. promote a regional dispersion of industries and economic activities.3. have performed better in export of manufactured products than the large scale ones.4. provide jobs to low-skill workers, who otherwise may not find employment avenues elsewhere.Which of the above statements are correct?
    • A1 and 4
    • B1 and 2
    • C2 and 3
    • D3 and 4
    Answer: (B) 1 and 2
    Explanation

    Statement 1 is correct. Small units are labour-intensive. They create more jobs for each rupee of capital.
    Statement 2 is correct. Small units can be set up in rural and backward areas. This spreads industry across regions.
    Statement 3 is incorrect. Small units are not shown to have out-performed large firms in manufactured exports.
    Statement 4 is left out of the published key, so the option pairing 4 with 1 is not accepted.
    Remember: Employment per unit of capital and regional dispersion are the classic arguments for small industry.

    Source: Published UPSC 1999 solution; Ministry of MSME

  15. #15UPPCS 2020
    Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R):Assertion (A): Government has launched the 'National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP)' for the period of 2020-30.Reason (R): The objective of NIP is to provide equitable access to infrastructure for all.Select the correct answer using the codes given below.Codes:
    • ABoth (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    • BBoth (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    • C(A) is true but (R) is false
    • D(A) is false but (R) is true
    Answer: (D) (A) is false but (R) is true
    Explanation

    Assertion (A) is false. The National Infrastructure Pipeline covers 2019-20 to 2024-25, a five-year period. It was not planned for 2020-30.
    Reason (R) is true. NIP aims to improve quality of life and give equitable access to infrastructure for all citizens.
    So (A) is false and (R) is true.
    Remember: NIP was announced on 31 December 2019.

    Source: Ministry of Finance, Report of the Task Force on National Infrastructure Pipeline, 2019

  16. #16CGPSC 2020
    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:List-IA. Mahadayi Water Disputes TribunalB. Godavari Water Disputes TribunalC. Narmada Water Disputes TribunalD. Mahanadi Water Disputes TribunalList-II1. 32. 53. 44. 2
    • AA-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    • BA-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
    • CA-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
    • DA-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
    Answer: (A) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    Explanation

    List-II gives the number of states in each dispute.
    Mahadayi: three states (Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra), so A-1.
    Godavari: five states, so B-2.
    Narmada: four states (Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan), so C-3.
    Mahanadi: two states (Odisha, Chhattisgarh), so D-4.
    The code A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 matches.
    Remember: The Mahadayi tribunal gave its award in 2018.

    Source: Ministry of Jal Shakti, Inter-State River Water Disputes Tribunals

  17. #17CDS 2015 (I)
    Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.List I: A. Railway equipment B. Automobile C. Ship-building D. BicycleList II: 1. Cochin 2. Ludhiana 3. Bhilai 4. JabalpurCodes: A B C D
    • A3 4 1 2
    • B3 1 4 2
    • C2 1 4 3
    • D2 4 1 3
    Answer: (A) 3 4 1 2
    Explanation

    Railway equipment is made at Bhilai (3). Bhilai Steel Plant makes rails and wagons.
    Automobile is linked with Jabalpur (4), where the Vehicle Factory Jabalpur is located.
    Ship-building is at Cochin (1). Cochin Shipyard is India's largest.
    Bicycle is linked with Ludhiana (2), the cycle manufacturing hub of Punjab.
    The code is 3 4 1 2.

    Source: NCERT Class XII, India: People and Economy, Ch. 6; standard Indian industrial geography

  18. #18UPPCS 2014
    Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:A. Tilaiya Dam - 1. DamodarB. Panchet Hill Dam - 2. ChambalC. Rana Pratap Sagar Dam - 3. BarakarD. Matatila Dam - 4. BetwaCode:A B C D
    • A3 1 2 4
    • B2 3 4 1
    • C1 2 3 4
    • D4 1 2 3
    Answer: (A) 3 1 2 4
    Explanation

    Tilaiya Dam is on the Barakar river, so A matches 3.
    Panchet Hill Dam is on the Damodar river, so B matches 1.
    Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is on the Chambal river in Rajasthan, so C matches 2.
    Matatila Dam is on the Betwa river in Uttar Pradesh, so D matches 4.
    The code is 3 1 2 4.
    Remember: Tilaiya, Konar, Maithon and Panchet were the first four dams of the Damodar Valley Corporation.

    Source: Damodar Valley Corporation; Ministry of Jal Shakti dam records

  19. #19RAS/RTS 2010
    Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?
    • AMahi Bajaj Sagar Project - Gujarat and Rajasthan
    • BChambal Project - Rajasthan, Punjab and Haryana
    • CBeas Project - Rajasthan, Punjab and Haryana
    • DIndira Gandhi Canal Project - Rajasthan and Punjab
    Answer: (B) Chambal Project - Rajasthan, Punjab and Haryana
    Explanation

    The Chambal project is a joint venture of Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh, not Punjab and Haryana. So this match is wrong.
    Mahi Bajaj Sagar serves Rajasthan and Gujarat.
    The Beas project serves Rajasthan, Punjab and Haryana.
    The Indira Gandhi Canal starts in Punjab and runs mostly in Rajasthan.
    Remember: Gandhi Sagar, Rana Pratap Sagar and Jawahar Sagar are the Chambal dams.

    Source: Ministry of Jal Shakti; Chambal Valley Project records

  20. #20UPPCS 2001
    Assertion (A): Coastal Gujarat has been called an industrial workshop.Reason (R): It is dotted with manufacturing units of textiles and garments, pharmaceutical and petrochemicals.Codes:
    • ABoth A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    • BBoth A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A.
    • CA is true, but R is false.
    • DA is false, but R is true.
    Answer: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    Explanation

    Assertion (A) is true. Coastal Gujarat is among India's most industrialised regions.
    Reason (R) is true. It has many textile, pharmaceutical and petrochemical units.
    The presence of these manufacturing units is the reason for the description. So R explains A.
    Remember: Ahmedabad and Surat are major textile centres of Gujarat.

    Source: NCERT Class XII, India: People and Economy, Ch. 6

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